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 Lawyer's Corner v2, One-stop centre for any legal queries

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TSdariofoo
post Dec 6 2011, 11:32 PM, updated 13y ago

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Dear all,

Link to v1:
http://forum.lowyat.net/topic/1602849

Lawyer's Corner is a one-stop centre on all things legal. Pose your legal questions here and I'll endeavour to reply to you soonest possible with some advice. Questions on any topics are welcomed - procedure on sale and purchase of property, loan documentation, tenancy, etc. Any other queries on other aspects and areas of the law are also welcomed. nod.gif

Here are a few links for those who want to find out more about lawyers practising in West Malaysia as a member of the Malaysian Bar. It is important that you know that the lawyer who is handling your matter is fit and properly admitted as an Advocate & Solicitor of the High Court of Malaya and possesses a valid Practising Certificate for the year 2011.

» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Legal fees calculator - To calculate legal fees for SPA (and stamp duty on MOT/DOA):

» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


To download a copy of the Solicitors' Remuneration Order 2005 - which details the scaled fees for SPA, loan documentation and tenancy approved by the Bar Council for lawyers to charge. This is very important so that you know how much your lawyer can bill you for such matters:
Attached File  SRO_2005.pdf ( 71.22k ) Number of downloads: 1311



If you want to know how to file an official complaint against an Advocate & Solicitor with the Disciplinary Board, go here sweat.gif :
http://www.asdb.org.my/procedures.html

Some simple and basic rules and regulations of this thread:
1. Please do not PM me for any legal advice, I do not give out any advice via PM. Please post your legal query at this thread so that everyone can benefit from an answer.

2. Please do not ask for any recommendations for law firms or lawyers here.

3. Please do not advertise, promote or solicit any legal services here. This is not a place for such matters. bruce.gif

4. Please do not ask any questions nor talk about discounts here. Discounts are illegal and prohibited by the Bar Council.

Cheers. icon_rolleyes.gif



This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 6 2011, 11:32 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 6 2011, 11:33 PM

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How To Prepare A POWERFUL Official Complaint Against A Lawyer

It is not easy to get a lawyer punished for negligence/misconduct. That’s the truth and to be honest, it is not that the complaint by the client has no merits. It is because the complaint was not filed properly and/or the Complainant (you) did not prepare yourself before going into battle against the lawyer in your bid for justice. That is why in this topic I will focus on guiding you to make a POWERFUL official complaint against a lawyer.

Introduction

A lot of people have the misconception that they can scare a lawyer by threatening to complain to Bar Council (BC). No lawyer will take such a threat seriously. Why? Because although the BC has an Intervention Dept, it has better things to worry about rather than seriously look into disciplinary issues. More often than not, the Intervention Dept would assist in cases where the law firm has been dissolved or lawyer struck off the rolls (disbarred). Such assistance would be to re-assign the file to another law firm to be completed.

It is the Advocate & Solicitor Disciplinary Board which has the power to hear and punish lawyers in relation to complaints by disgruntled clients. The Bar is self-regulatory, i.e. disciplinary proceedings are heard internally. This is also a stumbling block for Complainants – it’s bad enough to face a lawyer, but to face a panel made up of lawyers could be a really daunting and intimidating experience.

That is why planning and preparation is key in order for you be ready to file a POWERFUL complaint. Let’s get started.

1. IDENTIFY AND NARROW DOWN THE STRONG GROUNDS OF THE COMPLAINT AGAINST THE LAWYER.

This where you separate the wheat from the chaff, as the saying goes. Don’t waste your time lodging complaints for petty issues like “never pick up phone calls, never return calls, never send e-mail status update, staff so rude, staff don’t want to entertain my calls, never give me Photostat SPA.” Those are what the ASDB deem to be frivolous complaints which will be dismissed summarily without it even fixed for hearing. Only serious acts of negligence ought to be reported, such as the follows:
a) Sloppy, lacklustre and negligent work resulting in inordinate and delay in completion of transaction or abortion/cancellation of transaction;
b) Sloppy, lacklustre and negligent work resulting in inordinate and delay in completion of transaction, thus resulting in penalty by relevant authorities or parties (land office//LHDN);
c) Sloppy, lacklustre and negligent work resulting in inordinate and delay, thus resulting in late penalty interest (LPI) by developer or vendor;
d) Sloppy, lacklustre and negligent work resulting in inordinate and delay, thus resulting in Complainant to suffer a loss which can be quantified (eg loss of prospective subsequent sale of property);
e) Misuse or misappropriation of funds (eg stakeholder monies, balance purchase price);
f) Physical or verbal assault upon Complainant;
g) Acts or omissions (failure to act) which are totally against the best interest of the Complainant; and
h) Conflict of interest situations (eg collecting full scaled fees from both Vendor and Purchaser).

The above list is not exhaustive and are merely examples of the common cases. It would be better if the acts or omissions complained of resulted in some form of loss which can be quantified or calculated.

Losses as such mental distress, trauma, anger, frustration, lack/loss of sleep are hard to be substantiated unless supported by medical reports. As such, if the only loss you claim is for ‘mental loss’, make sure that it is/was serious enough until you had to seek psychiatric treatment. Otherwise, do not waste your time to lodge a complaint.

2. COLLECT DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE OF THE LAWYER’S ACTS OR OMISSIONS TO SHOW THAT HE WAS NEGLIGENT

This is a very important step which many Complainants fail to do, thus leading to their complaints being dismissed. Here’s how to avoid such unfortunate situation:
a) If you had to pay LPI for a delay which you are sure is the lawyer’s fault, compile and collect whatever documents you have first;
b) If the lawyer puts the blame on the bank/other party/developer/other party’s lawyer – ask your lawyer to provide you with a COMPLETE CHRONOLOGY OF EVENTS (‘Chrono’) from the start until the end.

• VERY IMPORTANT: Make this request in writing – either by email or by letter given by hand and acknowledged with the law firm’s stamp and dated. Give the lawyer five (5) working days to hand it over to you, either by email/fax or self-collection. Don’t let them post it to you as it will take ages, or even never reach.

• VERY IMPORTANT: At this stage, do not indicate or threaten the lawyer that you will sue or file a complaint. Just act as if you are concerned with the delay, and play along. If the lawyer blames the bank, just say that you might want to raise it with the bank manager. If the vendor is blamed, say that you are considering claiming indemnity from the vendor. NEVER let the lawyer have a clue that you are going after him. Otherwise, his guard will go up and he will do whatever necessary to avoid such a pitfall, even to the extent of faking/manufacturing false evidence which you may not know is false.

c) From the Chrono, look at the source of the delay. Remember, this is just what the lawyer is telling you, and may not be the whole truth. If you have any doubts with regard to any detail, ask him to provide you with a letter from the party involved duly acknowledged with the date (in layman’s term – chop received). Better still, ask for the complete set of correspondence. If cost is an issue, tell the lawyer that you will pay photocopying charges. Use same process as in para above.

d) Once you have all the documents, photopcopy another set and arrange them in order according to the Chrono. Include correspondence from your side as well, i.e emails/letters to and from the lawyer to you. Arrange and incorporate it together. You are now set for the next stage.

3. PREPARE YOUR OFFICIAL LETTER OF COMPLAINT TO THE ASDB

It is very important to know that you have to comply with the requirements set by the ASDB when preparing and submitting your letter of complaint.

Here’s the link to their website which states the requirements:
http://www.asdb.org.my/procedures.html

Basically, the information required are:
a) Typewritten letter of complaint that contains:-
i) Name of the Complainant (as in Identity Card/Passport)
ii) Full particulars of the complaint
iii) Signature of the Complainant
iv) Full address of the Complainant
v) Full name of the Advocate & Solicitor responsible for the subject matter of the complaint at the material time and the Firm he/she was practising at
vi) Name and address of the present solicitor acting for the Complainant in the complaint (if any)
b) A statutory declaration in support of the said complaint
c) The Complainant's identity card /passport number
d) Supporting documents
e) Fee for processing - non refundable,currently in the sum of RM100.00 by way of a cheque/postal order made payable to "BAR COUNCIL-DISCIPLINE FUND". Payment by cash can only be made directly to the Secretariat for which an official receipt must be asked for and obtained.

Now, you can prepare the letter of complaint yourself or you can engage a lawyer to do it for you. Remember one important thing – not all lawyers do cases of complaints against their peers. Look for a lawyer who has experience in doing so. Ask around from family and friends for recommendations. If they cannot recommend, surely they can ask their lawyer to recommend another lawyer who does such cases.

What are the type of cases in which you SHOULD appoint a lawyer to represent you?
a) If you complaint is a serious and complicated matter involving a lot of documents;
b) If you are of the opinion that the Respondent (the lawyer whom you are complaining against) is a tough nut who might intimidate or repress you during the hearing;
c) If your personality is such that you fear that you might not manage to get your case presented properly (eg introvert, timid, poor public speaking or presentation skills).

For other types of cases, I see no reason why you can’t represent yourself.

Here’s a sample of an actual POWERFUL letter of complaint to the ASDB. You can use this as a guideline. As you can see, the chronology is given very precisely and supported by photocopies of the relevant documents.

Sample Complaint.PDF
Attached File  Sample_Complaint_ASDB.pdf ( 307.7k ) Number of downloads: 374


4. WAIT FOR NEWS ON THE STATUS OF YOUR COMPLAINT FROM THE ASDB

After you have submitted your letter, it is a waiting game.


It may take months before the complaint is looked into. If you acted in person, you can call in once a month to find out the status. If you have a lawyer, get your lawyer to follow up. If you receive a copy of a letter addressed to the Respondent asking for an explanation, give yourself a pat on the back as you have crossed the first stage. This means that the ASDB considers that there are some merits in your complaint and is now asking for the Respondent to issue a reply. After that, you will be given a chance to rebut the Respondent’s Letter of Explanation. Then, it will be determined by the ASDB whether the complaint truly has merit to the extent of setting up a Disciplinary Committee (DC) to conduct a hearing into the matter.

If a DC is set up, give yourself another pat on the back as you have crossed another very important stage. Consider 60% of the battle won already.

• NOTE: The actual sample above went up to the stage of a DC being set up. At this stage, the Complainants filed a civil suit in the civil Courts seeking monetary compensation. This was a tactical move to turn the screw on the lawyer even more. Within a month, the Respondent directly called the Complainants (bypassed the Complainants’ lawyer) and directly paid them a certain amount of compensation to withdraw the complaint and civil suit.

If a DC is set up and a hearing date fixed, you can attend in person (together with your witnesses, if any) and if you have a lawyer, he will attend as well to address the DC. A DC panel is comprised of at least 3 persons, a chairperson who is an Advocate & Solicitor, and two other members who are not lawyers but who are professionals, eg accountants, architects, school headmasters, etc. These members are appointed to provide a layman’s perspective into the matter. More often than not, however, these members do not query much and merely follow what the Chairperson says.

You can opt to give a oral evidence or stand by what you have prepared in your Letter of Complaint. The Respondent (or the Respondent’s lawyer) will then cross-examine you. After that, if you have witnesses, they will give evidence. This is followed by cross-examination as well. Then the process is repeated with the Respondent and his witnesses, if any. You can cross-examine him, or use your Letter of Reply to answer him. To use your letter may be better if you act in person, as you may not know how to cross-examine him. The DC will then adjourn the matter and fix a decision.

The decision would be communicated by way of letter. It can dismiss the complaint, or find the Respondent liable for misconduct and impose a punishment where necessary – a reprimand, caution, fine, order for restitution, suspension or in the worst case – order for the Respondent to be struck off the Rolls (disbarred). A lawyer who has been struck off the rolls can no longer practise. His career as an Advocate & Solicitor would be over.

You can then either make a claim to the BC Compensation Fund, if you had suffered some monetary loss or in cases where there was misappropriation of monies. You can alternatively file a civil suit to recover damages from the Respondent directly. For a civil suit, kindly appoint a LITIGATION lawyer to do so on your behalf as it is not prudent to act in person for such matters.

That is all I can share. If you follow the steps from the start, you can have a POWERFUL complaint against your lawyer and if you play your cards right, the lawyer will back off and make an offer to compensate you without the hassle of going through a hearing or a Court trial. Remember that preparation and patience in collecting evidence is the key to ensure the success of your complaint.

I wish you all the best. icon_rolleyes.gif



This post has been edited by dariofoo: Jul 17 2012, 01:36 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 6 2011, 11:33 PM

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What to look for when appointing a lawyer for your SPA/Loan Documentation transaction

Appointing a lawyer is a serious matter and is something which one must plan for the long term. It is not different from choosing a doctor or tailor. The point is – you will be using this lawyer for other matters in the future, just like how one would tend to go to the same clinic or tailor. That is how the service industry is. However, those who follow this forum would notice that there are many who encounter problems with lawyers and this leads to many problems, including delays (thus causing late penalty interest, loss of prospective income through rentals) and to the extreme – abortion of the SPA.

The following are a few pointers which I can share in order to guide you better:

1. Always FIRST ask for recommendations from family members and close friends

Do you notice that some lawyers act for two generations of a family? He was the father’s lawyer and now act in matters involving the son as well. However, not everyone is as lucky to encounter such a lawyer who can provide continuous good service. Having said so, the FIRST place to get information is from family and friends. Why? Because those folks have personal experience with the said lawyer AND would not have any vested interest for the recommendation. If your parents cannot recommend one, ask your uncle and aunts. Ask your elder siblings or cousins. Ask your closest friends whose advice you can trust. Surely you would hit the mark.

If you still hit a wall, ask from your property agent (if any) or mortgage consultant. They would surely have more than one recommendation for you. More often than not, these individuals MAY be given a referral fee by the lawyer. That is why unlike family and friends, they MAY have vested interests in the recommendation. Having said so, an experienced real estate agent or mortgage consultant would have collaborated with their respective law firm – as such, it would still be a viable option to be considered.


2. Do your research on the lawyer and law firm BEFORE you confirm the appointment

Do not decide merely on the recommendation. If it is through a party who has a vested interest in the referral, it would be wise to find out more about the firm. Don’t take it for granted! Many folks seem to think the following:

- “It’s just a simple SPA transaction. What’s the big deal”
- “It’s just standard. All SPA lawyers are the same”

The above simple-minded attitude is what lands clients in trouble as it always appear simple, until there is a problem. That is when the experience, capability and aptitude of the lawyer or law firm comes into the picture.

A few simple ways to do research on the lawyer or law firm:
- go to the Malaysian Bar website and search
http://www.malaysianbar.org.my/find_a_lawyer.html
http://www.malaysianbar.org.my/find_a_law_firm.html

You can gather some basic info there. Most importantly, names which are listed there are confirmed to possess a valid Practising Certificate (license) to act on your behalf.

- Go to the firm’s website. Try to gather information as to the history, track record and experience of the lawyers in the firm.

- Request for a Company/Corporate Profile to get more information if there is no website or if the website does not contain much information. A reputable and respected firm will always be more than willing to e-mail you their Company/Corporate Profile.

3. Ask for a Quotation/Invoice/Note of Charges BEFORE you confirm the appointment.

Having done your research and being satisfied with the law firm, do not put pen to paper and sign anything yet. Always ask for a DETAILED and COMPLETE Invoice/Note of Charges for services to be rendered by the firm. Do not accept basic or general quotes. Do not settle for a lawyer or clerk telling you, “roughly RMxxxx ” on the phone.

A respectable and reputable firm will always be more than willing to spend some time to prepare it for you, even though there is the risk of you taking it and ‘shopping’ around for other better offers. That is the risk they bear in the service industry. If they are good enough and if their quotation is reasonable and honest, the client will not hesitate to appoint them. So should you. If you have any queries, ASK the law firm for explanation. If they are honest, they will explain and detail it to you. They can also undertake to provide receipts to substantiate their claim.

If they are dismissive, rude or unaccommodating to your requests, just walk away and get another quote. In the Klang Valley, there are approximately 2,000 legal firms and more than half are involved in conveyance of property. As such, there is no shortage of firms for you to approach.

Please note that legal fees for conveyance of property is fixed - for SPA and loan documentation. Please refer to the Solicitors’ Remuneration Order 2005 (SRO 2005). That is the definitive guide. Even stamp duty and service tax is fixed. The only one which should differ between firms are the disbursements (expenses). Be wary of quotes where the disbursements are marked up significantly.


4. Cheap/low legal fees may not necessarily equate to good service.

When comparing quotes for fees, most people would go for the lowest price. This is not a surprise. It is a simple rule of economics. It is the reason why more people shop at Tesco and not at Cold Storage. However, just like some of the products on offer at those outlets, we can’t say that the quality is the same for both, can we? Although discounts are prohibited by the Bar Council, it is common knowledge that lawyers still give discounts. Do not be tempted by huge discounts given by certain law firms, as it MAY be due to one of the following reasons:

- the law firm is desperate for clients and are slashing prices in a bid to get more clients. Simple question – would a law firm with a reputable clientele and good service record be desperate for clients to the extent of slashing fees? You be the judge.

- the law firm is HUGE and works on the premises of economics of scale – i.e. huge workloads of files for a huge number of clerks thus collecting files and fees in bulk. Now, there is nothing wrong in appointing a big firm, as they didn’t become big overnight. They must’ve done something right. However, one complaint against big firms is that their clerks are assigned with too many files. Secondly, high turnover of staff. Although a SPA may take 3-4 months to complete, once a staff resigns, files would be reallocated to another staff and this would cause a delay.

In worst cases, the files would not be allocated fast enough and would be left idle until the clients fume in anger at the delay and lack of attention. If the firm has a good track record and is recommended, then go for it. One major advantage of big firms is that they are more organised and have machinery which can move faster than an average-sized firm, i.e. designated departments/staff for photocopying, drafting, liasing with banks/land office, despatch clerks. All these are important and ensures that files are processed and closed within time.

- the law firm is SMALL and does not require high overheads, thus allowing them to slash prices. Now, there is nothing wrong to appoint a small firm. Perhaps they are still new and yet to expand. That does not mean that the firm is unreliable. However, your background research would be handy. Does the firm have enough staff (or any staff at all)? Would the lawyer give his personal attention to the file? All these reassurances are important if it is a small firm. One major factor of having a small firm to handle your matter is the PERSONAL TOUCH. Imagine the whole firm knowing exactly who you are and what you file is about. You can’t get that with a big firm. It would (normally) be easier to obtain status updates of the file from either the clerk or the lawyer (or even the lawyer-cum-clerk, if it is truly a one-man show). Some clients are just in it for the personal touch and service.

Remember, a lawyer worth his salt would never undercharge his client just to seal the deal. If he is confident that he can perform to the level expected by the client, he would command that amount of fees to be paid. If you are confident in the lawyer’s capabilities, you would surely not hesitate to pay fees where fees are due. Of course, not everyone is like that. Some just like it cheap, irrespective of any other factors. At the end of the day, it is your personal preference as to what you want, and how much you are willing to pay for it.


5. Know the clerk AND lawyer in charge of your file.

This is very important. Don’t accept documents sent to your home/office by a despatch clerk for your signature (unless you have no other choice). Try to attend at the lawyer’s office. See the surroundings. Ask to see the lawyer in charge. If it is a big firm, perhaps only a clerk would be appointed at first. See that clerk. Get a name and get his/her direct line. If there is a lawyer who is personally handling your case, ask for a name card. If it is a partner/sole proprietor, politely ask for his/her handphone number. Of course, do not abuse the information. Incessant and calls at the wrong hours ought not be done. There must be some discretion and reasonableness on the part of the client as well.

If you follow all the above advice, I am sure that your conveyancing transaction would be a good experience, barring any unforeseen circumstances of course. Nothing beats having a good lawyer whom you can trust and have a good night’s sleep, knowing that your file is moving and that things are in the good hands of your appointed counsel. Do not be complacent and take things lightly when appointing a lawyer. A bit of research and hindsight will save you a lot of trouble in the future. After this, you can appoint this same lawyer for your other matters in the future as well. Everybody needs a lawyer whom one can trust in the long term.

I wish you all the best in finding yours.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Jun 30 2012, 09:32 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 6 2011, 11:37 PM

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TSdariofoo
post Dec 6 2011, 11:43 PM

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This post has been edited by dariofoo: May 14 2012, 07:12 PM
Kokwm
post Dec 6 2011, 11:55 PM

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Dario, imho there is too much focus on legal fees for SPA and not much info on legal fees for loans. Will be good if this aspect is highlighted so that newbies are aware that when they buy prop and if they take a bank loan (zero entry cost) they have to consider legal fees for the loan which is a % of the loan taken. All these adds up to those xtras they need to be aware of when buying 1st prop.
property4all
post Dec 7 2011, 12:01 AM

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Also, more importantly, what happens when there is dispute with the lawyers. Tips on dos and donts when dealing with lawyers.

I can start off by giving one advice: if you are hiring a lawyer, be prudent and call up the bar council to check if the lawyer has been issued a warning or fine in the past before. Simple enquiries will save you loads of hassle in the future.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 7 2011, 12:34 AM

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QUOTE(Kokwm @ Dec 6 2011, 11:55 PM)
Dario, imho there is too much focus on legal fees for SPA and not much info on legal fees for loans. Will be good if this aspect is highlighted so that newbies are aware that when they buy prop and if they take a bank loan (zero entry cost) they have to consider legal fees for the loan which is a % of the loan taken. All these adds up to those xtras they need to be aware of when buying 1st prop.
*
Cheers. smile.gif

Yes, I do plan to put up draft note of charges for loan doc as well. Good point on zero entry cost cases - legal fees are factored in the loan itself. Lawyer sends quotation direct to bank and bank puts the total figure in the letter of offer. Newbie buyer has no clue whether he is overcharged or not.

Thanks for the input icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 7 2011, 12:41 AM

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QUOTE(property4all @ Dec 7 2011, 12:01 AM)
Also, more importantly, what happens when there is dispute with the lawyers. Tips on dos and donts when dealing with lawyers.
*
Yes perhaps I can expand the link to the A&S Discip Board and share some tips on how to prepare for an official complaint. Good idea.

Dos and donts when dealing with lawyers? Lol. I wouldn't dare! sweat.gif


QUOTE(property4all @ Dec 7 2011, 12:01 AM)
I can start off by giving one advice: if you are hiring a lawyer, be prudent and call up the bar council to check if the lawyer has been issued a warning or fine in the past before. Simple enquiries will save you loads of hassle in the future.
*
Have you tried it,bro? As in calling up BC direct to find out a lawyer's discip record? hmm.gif

What I know is that if you want to get some info on a particular lawyer [for example his BC number, his official address, etc], you need to pay some search fees. I doubt if a lawyer's disciplinary record can be obtained through a phone call to BC, but do feel free to prove me wrong if you have tried it. nod.gif

I have included a link where one can check whether one's lawyer has been found guilty in disciplinary proceedings ("hall of shame"). But for that, one would have to read through it manually.

Thanks for the input icon_rolleyes.gif

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 7 2011, 01:10 AM
SUSjalsrix
post Dec 7 2011, 09:30 AM

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Why is there a necessary to pay for the CKHT2 (income tax) form to the lawyer when it is just simple fill up form ?

Must the seller and buyer pay different fees for this form ?

Is it easy to sue seller if seller sell to many buyers ? (assume no caveat lodged)



This post has been edited by jalsrix: Dec 7 2011, 09:32 AM
kmf165
post Dec 7 2011, 09:34 AM

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Bro, gratz on V2 rclxms.gif rclxms.gif rclxms.gif
starship1
post Dec 7 2011, 09:57 AM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 7 2011, 09:30 AM)
Why is there a necessary to pay for the CKHT2 (income tax) form to the lawyer when it is just simple fill up form ?



Is it easy to sue seller if seller sell to many buyers ? (assume no caveat lodged)
*
yes i wish to seek answer on how complicated will it be to seller to fill-up and submit the CKHT2 for RPGT as i do understand lawyers charge between RM 200 to RM 400 excluding incidental expenses
TSdariofoo
post Dec 7 2011, 10:34 AM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 7 2011, 09:30 AM)
Why is there a necessary to pay for the CKHT2 (income tax) form to the lawyer when it is just simple fill up form ?
*
There's no necessity for anything when it comes to SPA. You can act on your own at any time. You can always opt to submit it yourself.

QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 7 2011, 09:30 AM)
Must the seller and buyer pay different fees for this form ?
*
Vendor pays RM300/pax. Purchaser pays RM200/pax.

QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 7 2011, 09:30 AM)
Is it easy to sue seller if seller sell to many buyers ? (assume no caveat lodged)
*
Sue for return of deposit paid - of course. Sue for specific performance to enforce the SPA and compel vendor to sell to you - you need to be the first party who entered into the SPA with the vendor. The subsequent purported SPAs executed with other purchasers are void and is of no effect as the vendor cannot execute a second SPA to assign his rights when he had already done so in the first SPA.

nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 7 2011, 10:36 AM

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QUOTE(starship1 @ Dec 7 2011, 09:57 AM)
yes i wish to seek answer on how complicated will it be to seller to fill-up and submit the CKHT2 for RPGT as i do understand lawyers charge between RM 200 to RM 400 excluding incidental expenses
*
How complicated is very subjective. What may be complicated for one person may not be complicated for another. But as I had stated in the above reply, you have the right to inform the lawyer that you want to submit it on your own. I'm sure there would be no objection from the lawyer. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 7 2011, 10:39 AM

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QUOTE(kmf165 @ Dec 7 2011, 09:34 AM)
Bro, gratz on V2  rclxms.gif  rclxms.gif  rclxms.gif
*
notworthy.gif cheers.gif icon_rolleyes.gif
property4all
post Dec 7 2011, 12:34 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 7 2011, 12:41 AM)
Yes perhaps I can expand the link to the A&S Discip Board and share some tips on how to prepare for an official complaint. Good idea.

Dos and donts when dealing with lawyers? Lol. I wouldn't dare!  sweat.gif
Have you tried it,bro? As in calling up BC direct to find out a lawyer's discip record?  hmm.gif

What I know is that if you want to get some info on a particular lawyer [for example his BC number, his official address, etc], you need to pay some search fees. I doubt if a lawyer's disciplinary record can be obtained through a phone call to BC, but do feel free to prove me wrong if you have tried it.  nod.gif

I have included a link where one can check whether one's lawyer has been found guilty in disciplinary proceedings ("hall of shame"). But for that, one would have to read through it manually.

Thanks for the input  icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Dario, you are right in that search fees are required. ANd you are also right in that their disciplinary record is not available for all to see, save for statutorily mandated notices of fines and penalities. My experience is from the PoV of a member of the bar. May be different. tongue.gif

However, the Bar would not have issues with complying with requests to search through public records on your behalf. For example, if you have difficulty navigating the website due to language difficulties, they would assist.

ykl
post Dec 7 2011, 12:36 PM

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Wow, V2 already, Congrats! Thank you and others who help answer some of my question last time. : )
SUSjalsrix
post Dec 7 2011, 01:21 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 7 2011, 10:34 AM)
1.Vendor pays RM300/pax. Purchaser pays RM200/pax.

2.Sue for return of deposit paid - of course. Sue for specific performance to enforce the SPA and compel vendor to sell to you - you need to be the first party who entered into the SPA with the vendor. The subsequent purported SPAs executed with other purchasers are void and is of no effect as the vendor cannot execute a second SPA to assign his rights when he had already done so in the first SPA.

nod.gif
*
1. If we submit income tax form ourselves, do we still need to pay rm 300/200 to the govt ? Or is it completely free ?

2. Who is going to pay for the legal fee to sue if buyer wins the case ? The seller or buyer ?


k3v1n
post Dec 7 2011, 03:11 PM

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Dear Dario, I got a question about stamp duty, because I'm first house purchaser, I suppose to have 50% discount on stamp duty right? but lawyer insist me to pay full amount before discount to her so that she only go apply for the 50% off to me, she said not everyone can successfully apply for 50% discount....so I wan ask you is that true? I need to pay her the full amount before I get the discount? sad.gif
SUSjalsrix
post Dec 7 2011, 03:54 PM

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QUOTE(k3v1n @ Dec 7 2011, 03:11 PM)
Dear Dario, I got a question about stamp duty, because I'm first house purchaser, I suppose to have 50% discount on stamp duty right? but lawyer insist me to pay full amount before discount to her so that she only go apply for the 50% off to me, she said not everyone can successfully apply for 50% discount....so I wan ask you is that true? I need to pay her the full amount before I get the discount?  sad.gif
*
Nonsense! You only pay stamp duty when the valuation come back from govt.



This post has been edited by jalsrix: Dec 7 2011, 11:16 PM
property4all
post Dec 7 2011, 04:38 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 7 2011, 03:54 PM)
Nonsense! You only pay stamp duty when the valuation come back from govt.

I think you had better switch lawyer, if you want better lawyer, PM me.
*
this is correct. the lawyer should be using the STAMPS system, meaning electronic assessment, before you pay any money to anyone. the lawyer is telling you nonsense.

http://www.hasil.gov.my/goindex.php?kump=2...1&unit=7&sequ=1


TSdariofoo
post Dec 7 2011, 06:00 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 7 2011, 01:21 PM)
1. If we submit income tax form ourselves, do we still need to pay rm 300/200 to the govt ? Or is it completely free ?

2. Who is going to pay for the legal fee to sue if buyer wins the case ? The seller or buyer ?
*
1. The RM200/300 goes to the lawyer as fees, not to the govt.
2. Seller.
k3v1n
post Dec 7 2011, 06:44 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 7 2011, 03:54 PM)
Nonsense! You only pay stamp duty when the valuation come back from govt.

I think you had better switch lawyer, if you want better lawyer, PM me.
*
QUOTE(property4all @ Dec 7 2011, 04:38 PM)
this is correct. the lawyer should be using the STAMPS system, meaning electronic assessment, before you pay any money to anyone. the lawyer is telling you nonsense.

http://www.hasil.gov.my/goindex.php?kump=2...1&unit=7&sequ=1
*
Means I only have to pay the lawyer 50% of the stamp duty right?
irise.ufall
post Dec 7 2011, 07:02 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 2 2011, 12:49 PM)
Boss,

Why you call me Mr Foo?  rclxub.gif I'm just dariofoo la.  rolleyes.gif

Anyway, it looks like you've got a SP clause there so you can compel them to complete the SPA and get vacant posession.
This is where you must understand the difference:

1) If you go for SP, then the costs which you can recover from the vendor would be the legal costs of litigating the matter in Court. That is all. You can't ask the vendor to pay you for legal fees for SPA and other costs related to the SPA as you are seeking that the vendor honours the SPA and completes it.

Don't be confused with legal fees - if you pay your lawyer xxx amount to file the suit in Court, don't expect the Court to award you the same xxx amount as costs. It will surely be less.

2) If you don't go for SP, then you terminate the agreement and the vendor reimburses you 10% plus another 10% as compensation. That compensation is meant to cover your expenses incurred throughout the SPA. You're not supposed to profit from it - the extra 10% is meant as compensation.

Hope that clears it up for you a bit?  nod.gif
*
Hi Dario, thanks for the clear explanation. thumbup.gif But, y u called me 'boss' r? I am not. tongue.gif

Ok, back to the topic.

I hv told the lawyer i will bring the case to court and the owner was threatened and considering to change her mind.

However, i did not hear anything from the lawyer since then.

I would like to share with you some of my SPA lawyer's problems:


1) According to the SPA, the Completion Date (3+1 mths) shall start when the 2nd MOT is in favor of me.

On 22/09/11, the SPA lawyer advised that the Completion Date & Extended Completion Date shall fall on 12/12/2011 and 12/01/2012 respectively.
I refered to the email & sent her email to ask her for the evidence for the 2nd MOT, she NEVER reply. And she didnt send the original letter to my loan solicitor!



2) On 21/10/2011, the SPA lawyer emailed to me and said:

QUOTE
"We wish to confirm that as follows :-

(a) The First Memorandum of Transfer ("MOT") entered between Developer and the Vendor(s) has submitted for adjudication on 3/10/2011 and the same is pending Notis Taksiran issue by Lembaga Hasil Dalam Negeri;
(b) The completion date for the Sale and Purchase transaction falls on 25/12/2011 and 25/1/2012 respectively;
© We still pending th fresh Redemption Statement Cum Undertaking from the Vendor(s) Financier, HSBC Bank (Malaysia) Berhad upon receiving we will forward the same to your Loan Solicitors to proceed advise for partial loan sum
"


I was pissed-off and sent her email to ask her y she advised 2 different Completion Dates & Extended Completion Dates, AGAIN, SHE NEVER REPLY!! and She dares not to send out the original letter to my loan solicitor.


3) On 1 December 2011, the SPA lawyer said in her email that (fyi, same date at night, the SPA lawyer called me to tell me about the Owner's intention to cancel the deal):

QUOTE
"(a)    Original Redemption Statement Cum Undertaking in favour of Malayan Bnking Berhad;
(b)    The duly stamped Statutory Declaration by the Vendor(s);
©    The duly adjudicated First Memorandum of Transfer dated 7/11/2011 entered between the Developer and the Vendor(s);
(d)    The duly adjudicated Second Memorandum of Transfer dated 29/11/2011 entered between the Vendor(s) and the Purchaser(s)
(e)    Official receipt issued by Management office
"


My loan solicitor wrote to them officially to ask for all the B&W from her, she has not reply. So my Completion Date is not started yet since my loan solicitor has not received any B&W from the SPA lawyer. shakehead.gif


Angel Dario icon_question.gif , pls give me some advices. The SPA lawyer is playing all the tricks and didnt care much about her Client.

May i know:
1) Is email an valid evidence for me to lodge a complaint to the Bar Council? (She always CONFIRM many things in the emails but never send over the original cover letters, even my loan solicitor requested for it)
2) My fren asked me to request for a Performance Monitoring from the Bar Council. Does it work?
3) I doubt she has submitted the 2nd MOT for adjudication. Is there any way to check without going thru her?
4) How can she simply advised the Completion Date? and changed the Date at her wish? What can i do?
5) Pls give me some advices on dealing with Lawyer like this. Even my loan solicitor cant stand the SPA lawyer oledi.


Pls icon_question.gif

Thanks notworthy.gif

This post has been edited by irise.ufall: Dec 7 2011, 07:10 PM
property4all
post Dec 7 2011, 10:59 PM

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QUOTE(k3v1n @ Dec 7 2011, 06:44 PM)
Means I only have to pay the lawyer 50% of the stamp duty right?
*
If it is the adjudicated sum by the stamp office, yes. Wait for them to revert with the adjudicated sum first. Usually they will take about 5 days upon submission for adjudication process.

This post has been edited by property4all: Dec 7 2011, 11:00 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 7 2011, 11:10 PM

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iriseyoufall:
» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Angel Dario??? rclxub.gif doh.gif

1. Yes, it is good enough. E-mails can be used as evidence in Court also. nod.gif
2. Never heard of it before. Sorry.
3. Put in a letter in writing asking her for a detailed summary of your case based on her e-mails. The list of docs in your second quote seems to be part of a letter whereby the lawyer forwarded the said docs to your loan lawyer. Am I right? Send in the letter by hand at the office. If you want, you can cc it to Bar Council also [whether you send it out is a different story whistling.gif ]. Give her 48 hours to reply failing which you will lodge an official complaint with the A&S Discip Board. Surely that will shake her up a bit.

* see first page of this thread for a link to the website of the Board.

4. There must be a reason why she did so. Without the benefit of a crystal ball, I can't predict why. Sorry about that. notworthy.gif
What can you do? Write that letter would be one thing - another thing is to seek advice from your loan lawyer. Surely they can hand over some copies of correspondence between your SPA lawyer and themselves. Gather more evidence. Get a clearer picture before you go further in this matter.

icon_rolleyes.gif

property4all
post Dec 7 2011, 11:10 PM

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QUOTE(irise.ufall @ Dec 7 2011, 07:02 PM)
Hi Dario, thanks for the clear explanation.  thumbup.gif  But, y u called me 'boss' r? I am not.  tongue.gif

Ok, back to the topic.

I hv told the lawyer i will bring the case to court and the owner was threatened and considering to change her mind.

However, i did not hear anything from the lawyer since then.

I would like to share with you some of my SPA lawyer's problems:
1) According to the SPA, the Completion Date (3+1 mths) shall start when the 2nd MOT is in favor of me.

On 22/09/11, the SPA lawyer advised that the Completion Date & Extended Completion Date shall fall on 12/12/2011 and 12/01/2012 respectively.
I refered to the email & sent her email to ask her for the evidence for the 2nd MOT, she NEVER reply. And she didnt send the original letter to my loan solicitor!
2) On 21/10/2011, the SPA lawyer emailed to me and said:
I was pissed-off and sent her email to ask her y she advised 2 different Completion Dates & Extended Completion Dates, AGAIN, SHE NEVER REPLY!! and She dares not to send out the original letter to my loan solicitor.
3) On 1 December 2011, the SPA lawyer said in her email that (fyi, same date at night, the SPA lawyer called me to tell me about the Owner's intention to cancel the deal):
My loan solicitor wrote to them officially to ask for all the B&W from her, she has not reply. So my Completion Date is not started yet since my loan solicitor has not received any B&W from the SPA lawyer.  shakehead.gif
Angel Dario  icon_question.gif , pls give me some advices. The SPA lawyer is playing all the tricks and didnt care much about her Client.

May i know:
1) Is email an valid evidence for me to lodge a complaint to the Bar Council? (She always CONFIRM many things in the emails but never send over the original cover letters, even my loan solicitor requested for it)
2) My fren asked me to request for a Performance Monitoring from the Bar Council. Does it work?
3) I doubt she has submitted the 2nd MOT for adjudication. Is there any way to check without going thru her?
4) How can she simply advised the Completion Date? and changed the Date at her wish? What can i do?
5) Pls give me some advices on dealing with Lawyer like this. Even my loan solicitor cant stand the SPA lawyer oledi.
Pls  icon_question.gif

Thanks  notworthy.gif
*
I will let the expert Dario answer with better explanation, since he's the real pro, but my understanding is:

1) yes, you can lodge complaints using email correspondence.

2) Not sure if got such thing also hmm.gif usually if you lodge a complaint, if they deem it's sufficiently disconcerting, eh will issue a notice to the lawyer to explain himself

3) never tried this before, but you can call up Hasil hotline to ask them if you can check. After all the instrument out to have your name and IC on it ( it is technically YOUR document).

4) SPA should provide Completion date? What does it say? It appears quite clear to me. Of course lawyer cannot simply change the completion date!

5) simple. Tulis surat to her, threaten to complain to Bar Council. 80% of the time they will be scared shetless. If really cannot, write in to Bar Council. That's the best you can do. Once you report Liao, remember if she ask you to pull the report and let her settle it, DON'T. Insist that she settle your matters first, baru you withdraw the report.
Felixchui80
post Dec 7 2011, 11:14 PM

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hallo dariofoo,

wanna ask something, notice of assessment is paid and submitted everything including the grant of probate, court order, original land title, quit rent & assessment, Memorandum of Transfer at Land Office for registration of transfer of 1/2 share in favour of lee fong moi.

when submitted to land office and did a land search the next day, it said there is 2 perserahan belum didaftarkan:

1. turun milik akibat kematian - grant probate
2. pindahmilik tanah
surat kebenaran 7723/2011


the land title used to be 2 names, i.e: lee fong moi & Low chui ming (deceased).

today went to did a land title search again, lee fong moi name is still under pemilikan dan alamat, but low chui ming is replaced by:

"lee fong moi sbg pemegang kuasa (probate) /executor 1, 1/2 bhgn, no. kp xxxxxxxxxxx, warganegara malaysia, (address of lee fong moi)"

there is some info such as "tanggungan dan endorsan-endorsan lain" which record the above perserahan registered on what day and what time.

so in this case, is the transfer already registered? but when ask them the new title, they said not register yet. confuse.....


TSdariofoo
post Dec 7 2011, 11:34 PM

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QUOTE(Felixchui80 @ Dec 7 2011, 11:14 PM)
hallo dariofoo,

wanna ask something, notice of assessment is paid and submitted everything including the grant of probate, court order, original land title, quit rent & assessment, Memorandum of Transfer at Land Office for registration of transfer of 1/2 share in favour of lee fong moi.

when submitted to land office and did a land search the next day, it said there is 2 perserahan belum didaftarkan:

1.  turun milik akibat kematian - grant probate
2.  pindahmilik tanah
    surat kebenaran 7723/2011
the land title used to be 2 names, i.e:  lee fong moi & Low chui ming (deceased).

today went to did a land title search again, lee fong moi name is still under pemilikan dan alamat, but low chui ming is replaced by:

"lee fong moi sbg pemegang kuasa (probate) /executor 1, 1/2 bhgn, no. kp xxxxxxxxxxx, warganegara malaysia, (address of lee fong moi)"

there is some info such as "tanggungan dan endorsan-endorsan lain" which record the above perserahan registered on what day and what time.

so in this case, is the transfer already registered?  but when ask them the new title, they said not register yet.  confuse.....
*
Registered - yes. New title issued - not yet. Most likely that is what the scenario is in your case. The database has been updated but the fresh issue document of title has yet to be processed by the Land Office. nod.gif
Felixchui80
post Dec 7 2011, 11:50 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 7 2011, 11:34 PM)
Registered - yes. New title issued - not yet. Most likely that is what the scenario is in your case. The database has been updated but the fresh issue document of title has yet to be processed  by the Land Office.  nod.gif
*
Hi Dariofoo, thanks for your quick reply.

So the memorandum of transfer is registered but new land title not yet issued. So their one day policy is no use, it has already been more than 1 week but new land title still not yet issued, just a bit confuse when ask them the new land title they said not yet register instead of not yet issued......

usually take how long to get the new land title if you dont mind me asking again? thanks.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 8 2011, 12:12 AM

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QUOTE(Felixchui80 @ Dec 7 2011, 11:50 PM)
usually take how long to get the new land title if you dont mind me asking again?  thanks.
*
Which Land Office?
Felixchui80
post Dec 8 2011, 12:17 AM

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hulu langat @ bangi
k3v1n
post Dec 8 2011, 11:03 AM

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QUOTE(property4all @ Dec 7 2011, 10:59 PM)
If it is the adjudicated sum by the stamp office, yes. Wait for them to revert with the adjudicated sum first. Usually they will take about 5 days upon submission for adjudication process.
*
Thanks for clearing the doubt thumbup.gif
macong
post Dec 8 2011, 01:53 PM

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Dear Dario,

Recently company bought a auction unit (commercial shop) and lawyer appointed. May I know who is responsible to find out latest assessment bill outstanding. Vendor's lawyer? Purchaser's lawyer? or Developer?.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 8 2011, 03:16 PM

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QUOTE(Felixchui80 @ Dec 8 2011, 12:17 AM)
hulu langat @ bangi
*
Give it 2 weeks to be safe. There's no 3 working days guarantee like the Shah Alam land office. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 8 2011, 03:17 PM

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QUOTE(macong @ Dec 8 2011, 01:53 PM)
Dear Dario,

Recently company bought a auction unit (commercial shop) and lawyer appointed. May I know who is responsible to find out latest assessment bill outstanding. Vendor's lawyer? Purchaser's lawyer? or Developer?.
*
Purchaser's lawyer nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 8 2011, 03:32 PM

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QUOTE(property4all @ Dec 7 2011, 10:59 PM)
If it is the adjudicated sum by the stamp office, yes. Wait for them to revert with the adjudicated sum first. Usually they will take about 5 days upon submission for adjudication process.
*
With respect, I have a different opinion. In practice, the SPA lawyer has to ensure that the stamp duty has been deposited with the lawyer as stakeholder (kept in client's account) before the MOT/DOA is sent for adjudication.

What happens if the notice is out and the purchaser has yet to deposit the stamp duty payable?

Of course, this is more towards prudent practice more than a rule of law.

Furthermore, if the purchaser is taking a loan and if the vendor's property is still encumbered, the financier's solicitors will request for a confirmation from the SPA lawyer that the estimated stamp duty payable has been deposited with the SPA lawyer. As such, even before first drawdown, the stamp duty must already be deposited with the SPA lawyer.

icon_rolleyes.gif

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 8 2011, 03:33 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 8 2011, 03:42 PM

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QUOTE(k3v1n @ Dec 7 2011, 06:44 PM)
Means I only have to pay the lawyer 50% of the stamp duty right?
*
You must understand that the rebate is not automatic. You have to apply for it together when your MOT/DOA is submitted for adjudication. Once LHDN is satisfied that you fulfil the requirements, they will state the stamp duty payable and that sum will be 50% of the stamp duty payable under normal circumstances. There have been cases where applications have been rejected.

Now, two scenarios:

1) If the vendor's property is still encumbered.

Then the financier's solicitors will request for confirmation from your SPA lawyer whether you have deposited the estimated stamp duty payable with the SPA lawyer before first drawdown to redeem the vendor's loan can be issued. As such, you need to deposit it much earlier in your SPA lawyer's client account.

A prudent lawyer would collect in full, as there's no guarantee that the application for rebate has been approved.


2) if the vendor's property is not encumbered.

Then there is no need for the confirmation as the MOT/DOA can be directly sent to LHDN for adjudication. Once again, A prudent lawyer would collect in full, as there's no guarantee that the application for rebate has been approved.

If only 50% is collected and if the application is rejected, things would be at a standstill until the purchaser coughs up the balance 50% payable. A prudent lawyer can skip the hassle of that and merely pay up in full what has been collected from the client.

Having said so, there are lawyers who just collect 50% stamp duty from the client. It's just that your lawyer doesn't operate that way.

In a nutshell, do not have any adverse conclusion against your lawyer. He is just being prudent by demanding for the full sum to be deposited with him as stakeholder. It's not like he can play with the money. If the application for rebate has been approved, the lawyer can refund the money to you, and all will be ok,

icon_rolleyes.gif

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 8 2011, 03:54 PM
ygjau
post Dec 8 2011, 07:29 PM

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I purchase a terrace house lease hold in Kepong. Already sign SPA 6 months ago. the problem is Pejabat Dearah dan Tanah Gombak dont approve this application. the vendor is malay, the house confirm is not bumiputra lot. but there are cases that my neighbour waited for 1 year to settle. Now to speed things up we might need to fork out RM5k for kopi money. please advise.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 9 2011, 12:12 AM

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QUOTE(ygjau @ Dec 8 2011, 07:29 PM)
I purchase a terrace house lease hold in Kepong. Already sign SPA 6 months ago. the problem is Pejabat Dearah dan Tanah Gombak dont approve this application. the vendor is malay, the house confirm is not bumiputra lot. but there are cases that my neighbour waited for 1 year to settle. Now to speed things up we might need to fork out RM5k for kopi money. please advise.
*
Can try to appeal.

Kopi money?

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k3v1n
post Dec 9 2011, 09:15 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 8 2011, 03:42 PM)
You must understand that the rebate is not automatic. You have to apply for it together when your MOT/DOA is submitted for adjudication. Once LHDN is satisfied that you fulfil the requirements, they will state the stamp duty payable and that sum will be 50% of the stamp duty payable under normal circumstances. There have been cases where applications have been rejected.

Now, two scenarios:

1) If the vendor's property is still encumbered.

Then the financier's solicitors will request for confirmation from your SPA lawyer whether you have deposited the estimated stamp duty payable with the SPA lawyer before first drawdown to redeem the vendor's loan can be issued. As such, you need to deposit it much earlier in your SPA lawyer's client account.

A prudent lawyer would collect in full, as there's no guarantee that the application for rebate has been approved.
2) if the vendor's property is not encumbered.

Then there is no need for the confirmation as the MOT/DOA can be directly sent to LHDN for adjudication. Once again, A prudent lawyer would collect in full, as there's no guarantee that the application for rebate has been approved.

If only 50% is collected and if the application is rejected, things would be at a standstill until the purchaser coughs up the balance 50% payable. A prudent lawyer can skip the hassle of that and merely pay up in full what has been collected from the client.

Having said so, there are lawyers who just collect 50% stamp duty from the client. It's just that your lawyer doesn't operate that way.

In a nutshell, do not have any adverse conclusion against your lawyer. He is just being prudent by demanding for the full sum to be deposited with him as stakeholder. It's not like he can play with the money. If the application for rebate has been approved, the lawyer can refund the money to you, and all will be ok,

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Dario, thanks for the clear explanation, wouldn't you mind to explain what is mean by "If the vendor's property is still encumbered or not"? smile.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 9 2011, 11:22 AM

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QUOTE(k3v1n @ Dec 9 2011, 09:15 AM)
Dario, thanks for the clear explanation, wouldn't you mind to explain what is mean by "If the vendor's property is still encumbered or not"?  smile.gif
*
Encumbered means there is a charge/assignment in favour of the bank who granted the vendor a loan. If the property is encumbered, it is highly likely that there are monies still owing to the bank by the vendor. In such cases, there would be two drawdowns (release) of monies by your bank to the vendor:

1) 1st release - the vendor's bank to redeem (settle) the outstanding loan.
2) 2nd release - balance loan sum to vendor.

So, for 1st release, your bank must first be satisfied that the stamp duty has been deposited with your SPA lawyer.

icon_rolleyes.gif
Milo_O
post Dec 9 2011, 02:04 PM

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Hi dariofoo,
In purchasing a sub-sale property, i understand that there are 3 type of fees as below, correct me if i'm wrong

i) Legal Fee:
From the 1st pg in V1 thread, i calculate the legal fee for $565k is $ 4,405.
Is this the legal fee for SnP ?
I also understand that there are many misc fees under legal fees e.g transportation fees, etc. Is the $ 4,405 inclusive of the misc fees ? I wud assume no.

ii) Stamp Duty
Using the calculator, the stamp duty for $565k is $10,950.
Is the above number also inclusive of legal fee stamp duty and loan agreement stamp duty ?

iii) Loan Agreement Legal Fees
How to calculate this ?
Is this for the loan agreement documents between me and the bank ?

This post has been edited by Milo_O: Dec 9 2011, 03:21 PM
Felixchui80
post Dec 9 2011, 03:15 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 8 2011, 03:16 PM)
Give it 2 weeks to be safe. There's no 3 working days guarantee like the Shah Alam land office.  nod.gif
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The new land title will be under only one registered owner (lee fong moi) or lee fong moi & lee fong moi sbg executor.......?


Added on December 9, 2011, 3:33 pmAny problem if it is under lee fong moi & lee fong moii sbg executor? Cannot just registered under lee fong moi as the only registered owner? Or this is the normal procedure?

Usually in such case, the new land title will be like that and would that have any effect in completing the SPA?



This post has been edited by Felixchui80: Dec 9 2011, 03:33 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 9 2011, 06:40 PM

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QUOTE(Felixchui80 @ Dec 9 2011, 03:15 PM)
The new land title will be under only one registered owner (lee fong moi) or lee fong moi & lee fong moi sbg executor.......?


Added on December 9, 2011, 3:33 pmAny problem if it is under lee fong moi & lee fong moii sbg executor?  Cannot just registered under lee fong moi as the only registered owner?  Or this is the normal procedure?

Usually in such case, the new land title will be like that and would that have any effect in completing the SPA?
*
1. Two names - same name, but in different capacity. One is in her capacity as the registered owner, and another in her capacity as the executor of the estate of the deceased owner of the other half-share
2. No problem
3. Cannot register with her in her capacity as single owner because she is holding the half-share as executor only.
4. It won't have any effect with the SPA,so don't worry.

icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 9 2011, 06:43 PM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Dec 9 2011, 02:04 PM)
Hi dariofoo,
In purchasing a sub-sale property, i understand that there are 3 type of fees as below, correct me if i'm wrong

i) Legal Fee:
From the 1st pg in V1 thread, i calculate the legal fee for $565k is $ 4,405.
Is this the legal fee for SnP ?
I also understand that there are many misc fees under legal fees e.g transportation fees, etc. Is the $ 4,405 inclusive of the misc fees ? I wud assume no.

ii) Stamp Duty
Using the calculator, the stamp duty for $565k is $10,950.
Is the above number also inclusive of legal fee stamp duty and loan agreement stamp duty ?

iii) Loan Agreement Legal Fees
How to calculate this ?
Is this for the loan agreement documents between me and the bank ?
*
1) Yes that's the base legal fees. There are also other legal fees like filing of CKHT, entry/withdrawal of caveat (if applicable) and consent. It does not include disbursements.

2) There's no such thing as legal fee stamp duty. This stamp duty for 10k is for the memorandum of transfer (MOT) or deed of assignment (DOA). It does not include stamp duty upon the loan doc.

3) 0.5% of loan sum. Flat rate. 20% less if Islamic financing. Yes this is the doc between you and the bank.

icon_rolleyes.gif
Octopuz
post Dec 10 2011, 12:51 PM

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Hi Dario,

I've signed the loan agreement recently but on the facilty agreement, the interest rate and monthly installment are not updated as agreed with my banker.

The person in charge of the signing asked me to sign and will make the amendment with the bank side later.

Thus, am I made a mistake here or it's all right as i have an email from the bank stating the final rate given?

Confused...
TSdariofoo
post Dec 10 2011, 09:59 PM

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QUOTE(Octopuz @ Dec 10 2011, 12:51 PM)
Hi Dario,

I've signed the loan agreement recently but on the facilty agreement, the interest rate and monthly installment are not updated as agreed with my banker.

The person in charge of the signing asked me to sign and will make the amendment with the bank side later.

Thus, am I made a mistake here or it's all right as i have an email from the bank stating the final rate given?

Confused...
*
Can sign first and amend later. It's done all the time. Just make sure that you attend to put your initial for all the amendments as it indicates that you agree to it.

icon_rolleyes.gif

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 10 2011, 10:00 PM
david_kiat
post Dec 10 2011, 11:06 PM

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Hi.
I would like to ask whether the entry and withdrawal of private caveat is covered under the SPA or the loan agreement?
My loan solicitors said no need to enter private caveat as it is a master title. Is this correct?

Octopuz
post Dec 11 2011, 10:58 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 10 2011, 09:59 PM)
Can sign first and amend later. It's done all the time. Just make sure that you attend to put your initial for all the amendments as it indicates that you agree to it.

icon_rolleyes.gif
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Oh... Thanks... smile.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 11 2011, 11:57 PM

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QUOTE(david_kiat @ Dec 10 2011, 11:06 PM)
Hi.
I would like to ask whether the entry and withdrawal of private caveat is covered under the SPA or the loan agreement?
My loan solicitors said no need to enter private caveat as it is a master title. Is this correct?
*
If got individual title - then for both SPA and loan there would be entry and withdrawal of caveat, i.e. two caveats - one by you and one by the bank.

For master title, what your loan sol told you is correct. nod.gif
SUSjalsrix
post Dec 12 2011, 12:20 PM

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Dario

I have a problem here as I don't know who to report - bank negara or lawyer association.

1. The lawyer told me the bank only gave the cheque to them on 4 dec.

2. The bank told me the lawyer only collected cheque on 4 dec.

Both sides are blaming each other.

But the interest was calculated from 28 nov as the amount disbursed.

Why should I pay 1 week interest when the money is not even disbursed to my seller or lawyer ?

The lawyer is part of the official panel of lawyers from the bank.


Both are irresponsible parties, who do I complain to ? bank negara or lawyer association ?
TSdariofoo
post Dec 12 2011, 06:49 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 12 2011, 12:20 PM)
Both are irresponsible parties, who do I complain to ? bank negara or lawyer association ?
*
Get the correspondence to see who's at fault. Look at date of letter by bank and date of collection.

How much was the interest?
SUSjalsrix
post Dec 12 2011, 07:59 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 12 2011, 06:49 PM)
Get the correspondence to see who's at fault. Look at date of letter by bank and date of collection.

How much was the interest?
*
that is a difficult thing to do cause my lawyer didn't get official letter from bank.

This post has been edited by jalsrix: Dec 12 2011, 10:04 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 12 2011, 11:33 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 12 2011, 07:59 PM)
that is a difficult thing to do cause my lawyer didn't get official letter from bank.
*
Then how are you going to prove your case against the lawyer or the bank? hmm.gif

How much was the interest charged?

Although I do not have a crystal ball and do not know the true facts of the case, if both parties are putting the blame on each other on the issue of the cheque - I would actually be more inclined to believe the lawyer rather than the bank. Reasons?

1) It is the lawyer who would normally call the bank to chase after the cheque;
2) It is the bank who will always take their own sweet time to issue the cheque;
3) The lawyer would not want to delay collecting the cheque when it is ready as it would defeat the purpose of calling up the bank and chasing them to issue it.

The above is the general scenario in MAJORITY of cases, not all. Perhaps your case fell in the minority of cases?

Surely when the bank issued the cheque there would be a cover letter annexed to it,right? Or perhaps an advise slip? hmm.gif

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 12 2011, 11:37 PM
SUSjalsrix
post Dec 13 2011, 09:37 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 12 2011, 11:33 PM)

Surely when the bank issued the cheque there would be a cover letter annexed to it,right? Or perhaps an advise slip?  hmm.gif
*
My lawyer didn't give me the cover letter or advice slip and they are very unfriendly/unhelpful.

Interest is not much but it is matter of ethics. Anyway, I try to get the cover letter from bank instead.

Thanks


Milo_O
post Dec 13 2011, 11:08 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 9 2011, 06:43 PM)
1) Yes that's the base legal fees. There are also other legal fees like filing of CKHT, entry/withdrawal of caveat (if applicable) and consent. It does not include disbursements.

2) There's no such thing as legal fee stamp duty. This stamp duty for 10k is for the memorandum of transfer (MOT) or deed of assignment (DOA). It does not include stamp duty upon the loan doc.

3) 0.5% of loan sum. Flat rate. 20% less if Islamic financing. Yes this is the doc between you and the bank.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
May i know how to calculate the stamp duty for the loan doc ?

Thanks in advance dariofoo rclxms.gif notworthy.gif

This post has been edited by Milo_O: Dec 13 2011, 11:11 AM
Kaitlyn
post Dec 13 2011, 11:35 AM

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Hi Dario,
I got a question on heritage issue. My dad has passed away and left a property. We as daughter, had waived the ownership and passed it to my mom. If my mom planned to selling this property within 5 years, will she be imposed the RPGT?
If yes, is it flat rate of 5% gains tax?
Can you give an example on minimum exemption and the retention sum of 2% of the purchase price? I've tried to read the article but I can't fully understand the calculation. Let said the property bought at RM60K long long time ago and I presume it sold RM100K now.
Thanks in advanced.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2011, 12:49 PM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Dec 13 2011, 11:08 AM)
May i know how to calculate the stamp duty for the loan doc ?

Thanks in advance dariofoo  rclxms.gif  notworthy.gif
*
I answered it in para (3) - 0.5% of loan sum. Flat rate. 20% less if Islamic financing.

icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2011, 02:55 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 13 2011, 09:37 AM)
My lawyer didn't give me the cover letter or advice slip and they are very unfriendly/unhelpful.

Interest is not much but it is matter of ethics. Anyway, I try to get the cover letter from bank instead.

Thanks
*
Ask for it in writing. Give them 48 hours to provide you with a copy, failing which you will file an official complaint with the A&S Discip Board.


TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2011, 06:43 PM

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QUOTE(Kaitlyn @ Dec 13 2011, 11:35 AM)
Hi Dario,
I got a question on heritage issue. My dad has passed away and left a property. We as daughter, had waived the ownership and passed it to my mom. If my mom planned to selling this property within 5 years, will she be imposed the RPGT?
If yes, is it flat rate of 5% gains tax?
Can you give an example on minimum exemption and the retention sum of 2% of the purchase price? I've tried to read the article but I can't fully understand the calculation. Let said the property bought at RM60K long long time ago and I presume it sold RM100K now.
Thanks in advanced.
*
The gain is calculated from price at time of disposal less price at time of acquisition.

The price at time of acquisition by initial owner (deceased) is not relevant.

Let's say now you dispose it at RM100K now. Perhaps it was transferred to her name as beneficiary 2 years ago on 13/12/2009. LHDN will assess the market price of the property at that date - 13/12/2009 (or thereabouts).

Let's assume that it was RM80K at 13/12/2009, so the gain is:

RM100K - RM80K = RM20K.

It is not nett gain at 5% of RM20K.

Acquisition price also includes cost of renovations, legal fees, agent fees, etc. Add that to acquisition price - perhaps RM5K

Final acq price = RM85K.

Disposal price also includes legal fees, agent fees, etc. So you deduct that from disposal price - perhaps RM8K.

Final disposal price = RM92K.

Nett gain = RM92K - RM85K = RM7K.

Taxable gain - 5% of RM7K = RM350.00

However, you would need to pay 2% of the purchase price upfront first. LHDN will refund the rebate to you later once they've processed your file.

* All receipts evidencing renovations, legal fees, agent fees - must be submitted.

* In the Form CKHT 1A (for vendor) - at the part where price of acquisition is required to be filled up - LEAVE IT BLANK. LHDN will fill it up with their assessed market price and they'll do the final math.

icon_rolleyes.gif

kobe8byrant
post Dec 13 2011, 07:30 PM

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Hi dariofoo, got several questions here:

1.
what's the major diff between an individual and master title?
why have a master title and not go straight for individual title?
what are the concerns for buyers of houses under master title?

2.
are there any major difference between final and qualified title apart from the fact that qualified title does not allow partitions?

3.
why for individual title require open/closed charge while without require DOA and PA?

4.
mind sharing the difference between the four types of caveats. I'm very blur on it.

Thanks
Felixchui80
post Dec 13 2011, 07:36 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 9 2011, 06:40 PM)
1. Two names - same name, but in different capacity. One is in her capacity as the registered owner, and another in her capacity as the executor of the estate of the deceased owner of the other half-share
2. No problem
3. Cannot register with her in her capacity as single owner because she is holding the half-share as executor only.
4. It won't have any effect with the SPA,so don't worry.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
now the lawyer said register lee fong moi as executor of the 1/2 share is the first part. now the second part is to register lee fong moi as the ONLY registered owner of the property therefore can transfer to purchaser and charge to bank. so can register her as the only owner or cannot one ah? confuse....land office never pick up phone one so cannot ask.....

now lee fong moi is registered owner of 1/2share and executor of another 1/2 share of then property, then can she transfer the other 1/2 share to her name so she can be the one and only registered owner?

does the law require she to be the one and only registered onwer in order to complete the SPA? or, the SPA can be completed even she is the registered owner of 1/2 share and executor of another 1/2 share?

is there any guidelines? have you came across such situation? usually what should the vendor do?

does she need to pay RPGT? the property bought in 1995 under lee fong moi and the deceased.

This post has been edited by Felixchui80: Dec 13 2011, 09:47 PM
Milo_O
post Dec 14 2011, 08:23 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 13 2011, 12:49 PM)
I answered it in para (3) - 0.5% of loan sum. Flat rate. 20% less if Islamic financing.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thanks dariofoo notworthy.gif

I have few more questions as below,

i) Lets say i'm a purchaser and i have interest in a property. However the house is joint owned by a couple (wife n husband)
Yesterday when i signed the Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA), only the wife name is stated inside the LOA.
Is it ok or both names must be stated inside the LOA ?

ii) One of the verbal agreed terms is that the current owner wud leave 70% of the furnitures/renovations and electrical applicances.
Lets say during the SnP signing, it is stated inside the SnP, however the owner refuse to sign and argue that at that moment, he don not want to
handover the furniture. Is there anything that we can do ? I just sign the LOA.

iii) During the LOA signing, i have requested the agent to introduce a lawyer. The current owner is also interested in using the same lawyer as well
which means that we are using a common solicitor. In this case, the common solicitor is representing whose interest more ? The owner or me ?

Many thanks rclxms.gif notworthy.gif . More questions wud be coming as i just sign my LOA for my 1st house.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 14 2011, 12:05 PM

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LAWYER'S CORNER WILL BE TAKING A BREAK

Sorry guys am off for an outstation trip now. notworthy.gif

Shall be back tmr evening and shall endeavour to answer all outstanding queries by tmr night or friday. nod.gif

Cheers. icon_rolleyes.gif


This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 14 2011, 12:05 PM
leoleo584
post Dec 14 2011, 01:12 PM

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Hi, I want to ask whats the different if use bank lawyer and my own lawyer? Which 1 better?

kennielee
post Dec 14 2011, 01:30 PM

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Hi Dario:
regarding the 20% remission in stamp duty for loan document for islamic financing, I found out it does not apply to all islamic loans. I applied for Cimb full flexi islamic loan and my lawyer charge me full rates for the loan document stamp fees. when I queried the lawyer told me that IRD disllowed the 20% remission because my loan is of flexi type, even though it is islamic financing. Is that true? Anyone else has the same experience?

Secondly regarding the early redemption of islamic loan, what is ur experience like? do they operate like conventional loan whereby people just redeem the outstanding loan?
Shades
post Dec 14 2011, 03:46 PM

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Hi,

Hopefully you guys can help me. My situation is I've signed a SPA to buy a subsale property. I've already signed the Letter of Offer from my Bank and now just waiting for the proper documentation to released the funds.

The owner just informed me that she has received the keys, VP letter and CCC from the developer (Sime Darby). I instructed my lawyer to start the process of releasing the funds, changing title etc.

Will the bank released the funds with just a CCC letter or do i need to wait for the CFO from the local council?

If bank can released the fund with just the CCC, is it advisable to take possession of the house without the CFO?

A new buyer here .. apologize for the ignorance.

Regards
Kaitlyn
post Dec 14 2011, 08:29 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 13 2011, 06:43 PM)
The gain is calculated from price at time of disposal less price at time of acquisition.

The price at time of acquisition by initial owner (deceased) is not relevant.

Let's say now you dispose it at RM100K now. Perhaps it was transferred to her name as beneficiary 2 years ago on 13/12/2009. LHDN will assess the market price of the property at that date - 13/12/2009 (or thereabouts).

Let's assume that it was RM80K at 13/12/2009, so the gain is:

RM100K - RM80K = RM20K.

It is not nett gain at 5% of RM20K.

Acquisition price also includes cost of renovations, legal fees, agent fees, etc. Add that to acquisition price - perhaps RM5K

Final acq price = RM85K.

Disposal price also includes legal fees, agent fees, etc. So you deduct that from disposal price - perhaps RM8K.

Final disposal price = RM92K.

Nett gain = RM92K - RM85K = RM7K.

Taxable gain - 5% of RM7K = RM350.00

However, you would need to pay 2% of the purchase price upfront first. LHDN will refund the rebate to you later once they've processed your file.

* All receipts evidencing renovations, legal fees, agent fees - must be submitted.

* In the Form CKHT 1A (for vendor) - at the part where price of acquisition is required to be filled up - LEAVE IT BLANK. LHDN will fill it up with their assessed market price and they'll do the final math.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thanks Dario, your help is appreciated notworthy.gif thumbup.gif
Milo_O
post Dec 15 2011, 03:55 PM

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Pls help me to review the attached lawyer quote icon_question.gif
Property details,

Freehold
Individual title
Joint ownership at seller side (husband and wife)
Seller using different lawyer
Joint ownership at buyer side (me and girlfriend)
Buyer using different lawyer
Selling price: RM567k
Loan Amount: RM510k

S&P and loan lawyer is the same lawyer.

From the v1 thread and v2 thread, below is the info that i have gather.Correct me if i'm wrong

S&P
Misc fees of RM250
Can i nego for discount ?

Registration on MOT RM 500
Statuatory declaration RM 20

What is this and is this necessary ?

Loan Agreement
Stamp Duty on loan agreement RM 2,555 ?
My loan is RM 510,300. 0.5% from loan amount is RM 2,551. hmm.gif

Preparation of charge document RM 402.21
Registration Fee on Charge Document RM120.00
Registration Fee on Entry of Private Caveat RM340.00
Registration Fee on Withdrawal of Private Caveat RM80.00
Statutory Declaration for Owner Occupancy RM 20.00
Stamp Duty for Statutory Declaration for Owner Occupancy RM 20.00
Stamp Duty for Letter of Offer RM20.00
Purchase of Document RM100.00

What is this and is this necessary ?

Land Search RM 60
This is have been charged at S&P. Can i nego for waiver ?

Bankruptcy Search (RM12-00 per person)
I have to pay for seller bankruptcy search ?

Courier charges and Misc- Transport, phone calls, postage, fax, photocopies etc. RM 250
This is considered expensive since i'm using the same lawyer for S&P and loan agreement.

Any inputs and comments are most welcome

This post has been edited by Milo_O: Dec 15 2011, 04:34 PM


Attached File(s)
Attached File  Bill_Loan____Title__1_.pdf ( 10.32k ) Number of downloads: 98
Attached File  Bill_P____Title__1_.pdf ( 32k ) Number of downloads: 78
SUSjalsrix
post Dec 15 2011, 11:48 PM

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dario

Is it better to sign S&P next year or this year for the buyer ? Since it is december already.

Will the lawyer tax be 5% or 6% next year ?

Will we still need to pay for ckht 2a next year ?

I am trying to save money ....
TSdariofoo
post Dec 16 2011, 12:10 AM

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QUOTE(kobe8byrant @ Dec 13 2011, 07:30 PM)
Hi dariofoo, got several questions here:

1.
what's the major diff between an individual and master title?
why have a master title and not go straight for individual title?
what are the concerns for buyers of houses under master title?

2.
are there any major difference between final and qualified title apart from the fact that qualified title does not allow partitions?

3.
why for individual title require open/closed charge while without require DOA and PA?

4.
mind sharing the difference between the four types of caveats. I'm very blur on it.

Thanks
*
1. Master title is basically a huge title owned by the developer (or landowner who JVs with the dev) which has yet to be submitted for subdivision into indiv/strata title after the completion of the housing development. Sometimes it is also known as block title.

Indiv title is basically the one particular title which identifies the individual unit in a housing development. For high-rise, it is known as strata title, but basically it is an individual title.

Why Master Title and not straight? Well, for strata title, the dev can only apply for it once the high-rise has been completed. If normal indiv title (eg for a terrace-house project), some developers apply for subdivision early and offer indiv title as part of the package. Some don't, and wait til they reap the profits from the sale. Perhaps because it is expensive to subdivide, or perhaps they haven't settled their loan with their end-financier, hence the master title is still encumbered.

2. No major differences. No partitions or subdivision. The boundaries are also not final (like duh!).

3. Because if it is Master Title, the unit owner is not the registered proprietor of the master title. Hence, the bank can only create the DOA as security for the loan granted to the unit owner. The DOA basically denotes assignment of beneficial ownership of the unit to the bank. The sequence of the DOA goes on and on for every subsale, and the owner must keep the trail of DOAs all the way to show that beneficial ownership has been assigned to him properly.

If individual title, the unit owner is the registered proprietor. Hence, the unit owner can agree to charge the property in favour of the bank as security for the loan. The owner is the chargor and the bank is the chargee.

4. Four types of caveats:

a) Private Caveat (PC)

The most common type of caveat. Any tom,d*** and harry with a caveatable interest can lodge a PC upon a property. Once a PC is lodged, it restricts any dealings upon the property. Most common intent is to prevent transfer to another party. You have caveatable interest like when you put in 10% down payment when executing a SPA. A PC can last for max 6 years.

A PC can be easily removed by the registered proprietor. An application to remove is made, notice is given to the person who entered the caveat, and within 2 months, if no just cause is given why the caveat ought to remain, it is automatically removed. The registered prop can also sue that person for compensation.


b) Registrar's Caveat (RC)

This is a caveat which the registrar or land administrator can lodge upon the property. Effect is the same as PC, but it is more 'powerful' because it also restrains dealings which have been presented for registration but not yet registered. So, it can be back-dated to even stop dealings which have been presented. A PC cannot restrain a dealing which has been presented.

More often than not, RCs are applied for by the govt to restrain debtors who owe the govt from transferring their property and defeating the govt's claim against them.

I've also heard of landowners who are victims of fraud apply to lodge a RC to protect their interests while they pursue legal action against the fraudulent party. In that case, the transfer was presented for registration but not yet registered. If by way of PC, it cannot be prevented from being registered. However, the RC can do so. Thus, the alleged fraudulent transfer could not go through and would still be pending.

The 6 years limit does not apply to RCs. It lasts as long as the Registrar does not remove it - or until an application by the registered proprietor, or a Court order is issued to compel its removal.

c) Lien-holder's caveat.

In the old days, when banks didn't want to go through creating a charge over the property and when there were no lenghty facility/loan documentation, a person can deposit his original title (called an IDT) with the bank, who will in turn grant him a loan. The bank can then apply to lodge a lien-holder's caveat over the property to secure its interest. If the borrower defaults, the lien-holder can go for an order for sale. This type of caveat is, however, very hardly used these days.

d) Trust caveat.

Basically to protect the rights of trustees and beneficiaries of property given to them pursuant to a trust. Once again, it is hardly used due to one condition - it can only be removed with the consent of both trustees AND beneficiaries. That may be cumbersome, as it is not easy to gather everyone around just for that. As such, most beneficiaries would just lodge a private caveat over the property in the interim. It serves the same purpose, and they can just withdraw it on their own accord when they wish to, without the need to refer to the trustee.

Hope the above explanation helps. icon_rolleyes.gif


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post Dec 16 2011, 12:14 AM

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QUOTE(Felixchui80 @ Dec 13 2011, 07:36 PM)
now the lawyer said register lee fong moi as executor of the 1/2 share is the first part.  now the second part is to register lee fong moi as the ONLY registered owner of the property therefore can transfer to purchaser and charge to bank.  so can register her as the only owner or cannot one ah?  confuse....land office never pick up phone one so cannot ask.....

now lee fong moi is registered owner of 1/2share and executor of another 1/2 share of then property, then can she transfer the other 1/2 share to her name so she can be the one and only registered owner?

does the law require she to be the one and only registered onwer in order to complete the SPA?  or, the SPA can be completed even she is the registered owner of 1/2 share and executor of another 1/2 share?

is there any guidelines?  have you came across such situation?  usually what should the vendor do?

does she need to pay RPGT?  the property bought in 1995 under lee fong moi and the deceased.
*
Your lawyer is right. It must be transferred to her name as beneficiary, and only then can it be subsequently transferred to the buyer. Don't worry about stamp duty as it is RM10 only.

With regard to RPGT, yes she would still have to fill up the forms and submit it, but surely there would be no RPGT as the market price as at date of acquisition would be almost the same as at date of disposal - since it is a back-to-back MOT. But for formality sake, the forms have to be completed and submitted.

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post Dec 16 2011, 12:19 AM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Dec 14 2011, 08:23 AM)
Thanks dariofoo  notworthy.gif

I have few more questions as below,

i) Lets say i'm a purchaser and i have interest in a property. However the house is joint owned by a couple (wife n husband)
  Yesterday when i signed the Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA), only the wife name is stated inside the LOA.
  Is it ok or both names must be stated inside the LOA ?

ii) One of the verbal agreed terms is that the current owner wud leave 70% of the furnitures/renovations and electrical applicances.
    Lets say during the SnP signing, it is stated inside the SnP, however the owner refuse to sign and argue that at that moment, he don not want to   
    handover the furniture. Is there anything that we can do ? I just sign the LOA.

iii) During the LOA signing, i have requested the agent to introduce a lawyer. The current owner is also interested in using the same lawyer as well
    which means that we are using a common solicitor. In this case, the common solicitor is representing whose interest more ? The owner or me ?

Many thanks  rclxms.gif notworthy.gif . More questions wud be coming as i just sign my LOA for my 1st house.
*
1. One name is ok. Surely the wife is signing on her husband's behalf and has his authority to do so. If two friends are owners, then perhaps it would be prudent to have both to sign.

2. Verbal promises is worth nothing as in the event of a dispute, it is your word against his word. So how do you prove your case? If you want to be prudent, get the owner to list out the items and get it annexed to the SPA.

3. The lawyer is supposed to act on your behalf. He is your lawyer. Common solicitor only refers to his role as assisting the vendor to redeem the loan, prepare discharge docs, and filing CKHT forms. At all times, he must act in your best interest.

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post Dec 16 2011, 12:22 AM

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QUOTE(leoleo584 @ Dec 14 2011, 01:12 PM)
Hi, I want to ask whats the different if use bank lawyer and my own lawyer? Which 1 better?
*
Surely you trust the capabilities of your own lawyer better than another lawyer right? Given the choice whether to retain your SPA lawyer to also do the loan doc, or take bank panel lawyer, it would be better to stick to the same lawyer as it usually makes it faster - it eliminates a trail of correspondence. However, i used the word "usually" as there could be a delay if the lawyer is not adequately experienced in handling the loan docs. So it could backfire.

Choice of lawyer is very personal. Depends on the individual. If you're confident that your lawyer can do the job, then by all means go ahead.

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post Dec 16 2011, 12:24 AM

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QUOTE(kennielee @ Dec 14 2011, 01:30 PM)
Hi Dario:
regarding the 20% remission in stamp duty for loan document for islamic financing, I found out it does not apply to all islamic loans. I applied for Cimb full flexi islamic loan and my lawyer charge me full rates for the loan document stamp fees. when I queried the lawyer told me that IRD disllowed the 20% remission because my loan is of flexi type, even though it is islamic financing. Is that true? Anyone else has the same experience?
*
Never heard of that. Let me check and get back to you.



QUOTE(kennielee @ Dec 14 2011, 01:30 PM)
Secondly regarding the early redemption of islamic loan, what is ur experience like?  do they operate like conventional loan whereby people just redeem the outstanding loan?
*
Calculation of the sum in cases of early settlement would be a question best answered by an experienced banker. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 16 2011, 12:35 AM

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QUOTE(Shades @ Dec 14 2011, 03:46 PM)
Hi,

Hopefully you guys can help me. My situation is I've signed a SPA to buy a subsale property. I've already signed the Letter of Offer from my Bank and now just waiting for the proper documentation to released the funds.

The owner just informed me that she has received the keys, VP letter and CCC from the developer (Sime Darby). I instructed my lawyer to start the process of releasing the funds, changing title etc.

Will the bank released the funds with just a CCC letter or do i need to wait for the CFO from the local council?

If bank can released the fund with just the CCC, is it advisable to take possession of the house without the CFO?

A new buyer here .. apologize for the ignorance.

Regards
*
If I'm not mistaken, the CCC replaces the need for a CFO. With the CCC, the owner can move into the unit already. I think this came into place sometime in 2007 to eliminate the need for CFO, which was a cumbersome process, full of red tape. However, if i'm not mistaken, it only applies to new properties which are not larger than 2 stories.

If your property fits the description, then the bank ought to be satisfied with proof of a copy of the CCC in order to release the balance loan sum. icon_rolleyes.gif
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post Dec 16 2011, 12:42 AM

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Milo_O:
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Disbursements you can always nego for discount. No prohibition there.

For stamp duty upon loan, it is always rounded up to next thousand - so your loan is deemed to be RM511K - so the sum is correct.

Purchase of documents from bank - the bank charges for copies of the loan doc. Price ranges from RM100-RM150.

Land search - RM30/search.

Bankruptcy search - if same lawyer for SPA and loan, it needs to be done once only. The onus is upon you to search whether the seller is bankrupt, not the seller, so you have to pay for it.

Total disbursements for both SPA and loan is RM500. If you've read the earlier posts you'll have a rough idea as to whether it is too much and what you may do.

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post Dec 16 2011, 12:47 AM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Dec 15 2011, 11:48 PM)
dario

Is it better to sign S&P next year or this year for the buyer ? Since it is december already.

Will the lawyer tax be 5% or 6% next year ?

Will we still need to pay for ckht 2a next year ?

I am trying to save money ....
*
There's no difference, from the way I see it. It's not like a car where some people are hesitant to buy at the end of the year as it will be referred to by the year of purchase/registration, and not the month.

Any superstitious beliefs?

There has been no announcement as to change of service tax to date, so I guess it would still be 6%.

For CKHT forms - please note that filing of forms is free - you're paying legal fees for the lawyer to prepare and file it. Please refer to SRO 2005 which you can download at the first page. The legal fees has not changed since then so I doubt if the coming year will make any difference.

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Milo_O
post Dec 16 2011, 09:46 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 16 2011, 12:42 AM)
Milo_O:
» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Disbursements you can always nego for discount. No prohibition there.

For stamp duty upon loan, it is always rounded up to next thousand - so your loan is deemed to be RM511K - so the sum is correct.

Purchase of documents from bank - the bank charges for copies of the loan doc. Price ranges from RM100-RM150.

Land search - RM30/search.

Bankruptcy search - if same lawyer for SPA and loan, it needs to be done once only. The onus is upon you to search whether the seller is bankrupt, not the seller, so you have to pay for it.

Total disbursements for both SPA and loan is RM500. If you've read the earlier posts you'll have a rough idea as to whether it is too much and what you may do.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thanks Dario. I have further clarifications.
Apologize if u may have answer this but i cant seem to digest the answer. blush.gif

SPA

Registration on MOT RM 500
Statuatory declaration RM 20

What is this and is this necessary ?

Loan Agreement
Preparation of charge document RM 402.21
Registration Fee on Charge Document RM120.00
Registration Fee on Entry of Private Caveat RM340.00
Registration Fee on Withdrawal of Private Caveat RM80.00
Statutory Declaration for Owner Occupancy RM 20.00
Stamp Duty for Statutory Declaration for Owner Occupancy RM 20.00
Stamp Duty for Letter of Offer RM20.00
Purchase of Document RM100.00

What is this and is this necessary ?


Seremban_2
post Dec 16 2011, 10:31 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 16 2011, 12:42 AM)
Milo_O:
» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Purchase of documents from bank - the bank charges for copies of the loan doc. Price ranges from RM100-RM150.

*
Public Bank Charge for copies of the loan document = RM200.

Price ranges from RM100-RM200.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 16 2011, 02:06 PM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Dec 16 2011, 09:46 AM)
Thanks Dario. I have further clarifications.
Apologize if u may have answer this but i cant seem to digest the answer.  blush.gif
*
The RM20 for SD is affirmation fees paid to the Commissioner for Oaths to attest your signature upon the SD. The SD prepared is the one for Owner Occupancy as required by the bank.

The RM100 is for payment to the bank for pre-printed loan documentation. The loan agreement, charge annexure, and other security documents must be bought from the bank. Standard practice.

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TSdariofoo
post Dec 16 2011, 02:11 PM

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QUOTE(Seremban_2 @ Dec 16 2011, 10:31 AM)
Public Bank Charge for copies of the loan document = RM200.

Price ranges from RM100-RM200.
*
Cheers.

Latest update: Hong Leong charges RM250.00 for loan documentation effective 1st Dec 2011. Docs are in soft copy to be printed by law firm. That means that the charges are basically for them to put their precious signature upon the loan documentation. Must be super duper expensive and precious ink which they are using! doh.gif

Not only that, there's a RM50 charge for execution of discharge of charge OR deed of RnR. That means when you later sell of the house you have to bear this cost as well. doh.gif

So now we can say that it ranges from RM100-RM250.00 sweat.gif
Seremban_2
post Dec 16 2011, 02:37 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 16 2011, 02:11 PM)
Cheers.

Latest update: Hong Leong charges RM250.00 for loan documentation effective 1st Dec 2011. Docs are in soft copy to be printed by law firm. That means that the charges are basically for them to put their precious signature upon the loan documentation. Must be super duper expensive and precious ink which they are using!  doh.gif 

Not only that, there's a RM50 charge for execution of discharge of charge OR deed of RnR. That means when you later sell of the house you have to bear this cost as well.  doh.gif

So now we can say that it ranges from RM100-RM250.00  sweat.gif
*
Yeah!!!!!!! thumbup.gif

Share of Information: If the public want to save on the RM100-RM250 thing, you can take their bank panel law firm as it automatic waive for certain bank.

This post has been edited by Seremban_2: Dec 16 2011, 02:40 PM
Milo_O
post Dec 16 2011, 05:57 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 16 2011, 02:06 PM)
The RM20 for SD is affirmation fees paid to the Commissioner for Oaths to attest your signature upon the SD. The SD prepared is the one for Owner Occupancy as required by the bank.

The RM100 is for payment to the bank for pre-printed loan documentation. The loan agreement, charge annexure, and other security documents must be bought from the bank. Standard practice.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thanks. I appreciate the respond notworthy.gif
asamlaksa
post Dec 16 2011, 08:04 PM

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Sorry out of topic, but congrats dariofoo for the promotion. A new Elite member in house. Cheers, keep up the good job and keep up contributing!
pilotHans
post Dec 17 2011, 01:20 PM

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hi...i wonder,

im planning to buy a house under persatuan pesara jabatan perhutanan..........so i wonder, would it be an issue if the name is not of a owner instead of a persatuan? what documents do i need to verify before i pay the booking fee? i have to pay the 2% by tomorrow to avoid the house being sold to other parties...

anyone plz advice.......
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post Dec 17 2011, 11:52 PM

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QUOTE(pilotHans @ Dec 17 2011, 01:20 PM)
hi...i wonder,

im planning to buy a house under persatuan pesara jabatan perhutanan..........so i wonder, would it be an issue if the name is not of a owner instead of a persatuan? what documents do i need to verify before i pay the booking fee? i have to pay the 2% by tomorrow to avoid the house being sold to other parties...

anyone plz advice.......
*
You're going through an agent? Make sure that the letter of offer to purchase (booking form) has been signed with the chop of the persatuan on it. At least you know that the intent to sell is official. You can request for a copy of the title to do a check now itself, if you have any doubts.
pilotHans
post Dec 18 2011, 03:27 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 17 2011, 11:52 PM)
You're going through an agent? Make sure that the letter of offer to purchase (booking form) has been signed with the chop of the persatuan on it. At least you know that the intent to sell is official. You can request for a copy of the title to do a check now itself, if you have any doubts.
*
1) yes, i do..problem is that agent said they don't have the gran yet. weird.....so i wonder how to make the booking fee legal / not have issues in future...hmm..my dad (talk with him on the phone ) said that if the house is from a persatuan or state will have problems in transferring the name sweat.gif

2) copy of title? define? thanks...

3) thanks for the suggestion.so booking form need to have sign + chop of persatuan..ok ok..coz according to agent, the lawyer is the persatuan's lawyer.... (Othman Hashim & Co) agent said well know lawyer...i myself am not sure sweat.gif

4) yeah, im meeting them today 6pm... sweat.gif


This post has been edited by pilotHans: Dec 18 2011, 03:31 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 18 2011, 04:14 PM

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QUOTE(pilotHans @ Dec 18 2011, 03:27 PM)
1) yes, i do..problem is that agent said they don't have the gran yet. weird.....so i wonder how to make the booking fee legal / not have issues in future...hmm..my dad (talk with him on the phone ) said that if the house is from a persatuan or state will have problems in transferring the name  sweat.gif

2) copy of title? define? thanks...

3) thanks for the suggestion.so booking form need to have sign + chop of persatuan..ok ok..coz according to agent, the lawyer is the persatuan's lawyer....  (Othman Hashim & Co)  agent said well know lawyer...i myself am not sure  sweat.gif

4) yeah, im meeting them today 6pm...  sweat.gif
*
Copy of title refers to the geran/grant or "gran" as you spelt it. Same thing. From there you can see the registered owner of the property.

What do you mean the lawyer is the persatuan's lawyer? You mean the agent is referring you to appoint a lawyer who is coincidently the persatuan's lawyer? As purchaser you need to appoint a lawyer, and the vendor can 'tumpang' your lawyer. If you're going to appoint their lawyer to purportedly act for you, I don't think that is a wise decision. You might as well appoint a lawyer of your own choice. Ask family and friends for recommendations.

Good luck on the meeting then. If you do decide to make payment of any amount, make sure that it is paid to the party who is authorised to receive payment (unless payment is made directly in favour of the persatuan). Don't pay cash to anyone. Insist on a receipt, or acknowledgement of receipt of payment.

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SUSVincentChen
post Dec 18 2011, 06:51 PM

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If, my dad declares bankruptcy, the house with joint name of my mom and my dad will be claimed to pay debt(house was bought 11 years back)?? also, if the car is bought 2 years ago, which when my dad isnt in financial problem, the car will be claimed to pay debt?(if he immediately xfer to my mom)

2 more, will my dad's EPF and life insurance be claimed to pay debt....

what are tools of trade, and also, what can be added into exemption, i google bout it at US laws have exemption on certain assets

This post has been edited by VincentChen: Dec 18 2011, 09:20 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 18 2011, 11:26 PM

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QUOTE(VincentChen @ Dec 18 2011, 06:51 PM)
If, my dad declares bankruptcy, the house with joint name of my mom and my dad will be claimed to pay debt(house was bought 11 years back)?? also, if the car is bought 2 years ago, which when my dad isnt in financial problem, the car will be claimed to pay debt?(if he immediately xfer to my mom)
*
Is there an outstanding loan on the house? What about the car? Is it on hire-purchase or was it bought for cash?

QUOTE(VincentChen @ Dec 18 2011, 06:51 PM)
2 more, will my dad's EPF and life insurance be claimed to pay debt....

what are tools of trade, and also, what can be added into exemption, i google bout it at US laws have exemption on certain assets
*
Insurance - nope. EPF i'm not sure, but I strongly doubt if that can be garnished. Most of the time it's bank accounts which are frozen and then garnished to pay off the creditors.

Tools of trade would refer to the tools of a plumber, electrician, carpenter (examples) used to ply their trade. All those can't be touched by the creditors.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 18 2011, 11:28 PM
SUSVincentChen
post Dec 18 2011, 11:59 PM

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the car was bought using check 2 years ago at a 2nd hand shop(its for personal travel use, my dad goes bankrupt not because of company, its because he gamble on stock market), for the house, im not sure whether is there any outstanding loan but i pretty sure the installment had paid finish(or almost finish), installment are all paid by my mom every month, my dad just shares the name

*thx alot for spending time helping me smile.gif

This post has been edited by VincentChen: Dec 19 2011, 12:08 AM
C-Note
post Dec 19 2011, 12:49 AM

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Hi,

Let's say A is one of the directors of a management office of a condominium. There are 2 employees under A who are in the accounts department(they are in charge of the maintenance fees monthly)

One day, RM200k went missing, so did the 2 employees and the accounts book. A police report has been lodged.

The community plans to sue the director in charge. Sure, the other directors have some responsibilities too but A holds the most responsibility. A is clean of any guilty deeds.

Can A be sued? Under what charges? Any jail sentence?
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post Dec 19 2011, 02:51 AM

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QUOTE(VincentChen @ Dec 18 2011, 11:59 PM)
the car was bought using check 2 years ago at a 2nd hand shop(its for personal travel use, my dad goes bankrupt not because of company, its because he gamble on stock market), for the house, im not sure whether is there any outstanding loan but i pretty sure the installment had paid finish(or almost finish), installment are all paid by my mom every month, my dad just shares the name

*thx alot for spending time helping me  smile.gif
*
No point transferring name of the car to your mum as the doctrine of 'relation back' would apply and it would nullify the transfer. This transfer is what the law terms as a 'fraudelent conveyance' and is an act of bankruptcy contrary to the Bankruptcy Act.

Just sell it off now (not to a family member - sell it to an independant third party) and perhaps get a cheaper car. If the bank still has a charge over the property then the creditors can't touch it.

I came across this book not long ago and I thought it was a really informative book and everyone who has a case against a bank (or a potential case) should invest in it (RM15 only!) and read it.

How to Represent Yourself in Court to Fight Banks

http://www.mphonline.com/books/nsearchdeta...e=9789673204472

If your dad's situation is indeed perilous and if he is on the verge of bankruptcy, you might want to get him this book to read and start preparing.

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TSdariofoo
post Dec 19 2011, 03:10 AM

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QUOTE(C-Note @ Dec 19 2011, 12:49 AM)
Hi,

Let's say A is one of the directors of a management office of a condominium. There are 2 employees under A who are in the accounts department(they are in charge of the maintenance fees monthly)

One day, RM200k went missing, so did the 2 employees and the accounts book. A police report has been lodged.

The community plans to sue the director in charge. Sure, the other directors have some responsibilities too but A holds the most responsibility. A is clean of any guilty deeds.

Can A be sued? Under what charges? Any jail sentence?
*
Community wants to sue the director in charge?

In a civil suit, the legal right of a party to sue or be sued must first be ascertained. This is called locus standi .

Let's start with the party who sues - who represents the community? Is it each and every individual owner in the list? Is it the Joint-Management Body [JMB]?

Who is sued? - Who's responsible for the money? What do you mean by management office? Is it the office of the JMB? Or is it still a Management Corporation (MC) if not JMB? Is it a Managing Agent who has been appointed by the JMB to run the show with regard to management of the condo?

If there is an external third party involved like the Managing Agent - then it could be a case between the JMB vs Managing Agent (most likely a Sdn Bhd - as you mentioned that there is a director is involved).

The Sdn Bhd is a legal entity by itself. As such, the directors would not be personally liable out of his own pocket to pay any compensation ordered by the Court in the event the Sdn Bhd loses the case. If the Sdn Bhd is sued and loses the case, it has to pay out of whatever monies and assets it owns under its own name. The directors (all of them - doesn't matter who holds more responsibility) cannot be made liable personally.

That is with regard to civil liability.

With regard to criminal liability, it does seem like a case of Criminal Breach of Trust (CBT). In such cases, the perpetrator would be an individual. Of course the 2 staff would be called up for questioning. If A is involved in the day-to-day running of the Sdn Bhd's affairs in the condo, he would be called up too.

Under Section 406 of the Penal Code - General CBT, the sentence is minimum 1 year and maximum 10 years jail AND whipping AND fine.

Under Section 408 of the Penal Code - CBT by servant or agent - in relation to the 2 staff - same sentence.

To answer your question - in particular if A can be sued personally in a civil case to pay up the 200k- the answer is No.

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This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 19 2011, 03:10 AM
SUSVincentChen
post Dec 19 2011, 10:41 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 19 2011, 02:51 AM)
No point transferring name of the car to your mum as the doctrine of 'relation back' would apply and it would nullify the transfer. This transfer is what the law terms as a 'fraudelent conveyance' and is an act of bankruptcy contrary to the Bankruptcy Act.

Just sell it off now (not to a family member - sell it to an independant third party) and perhaps get a cheaper car. If the bank still has a charge over the property then the creditors can't touch it.

I came across this book not long ago and I thought it was a really informative book and everyone who has a case against a bank (or a potential case) should invest in it (RM15 only!) and read it.

How to Represent Yourself in Court to Fight Banks

http://www.mphonline.com/books/nsearchdeta...e=9789673204472

If your dad's situation is indeed perilous and if he is on the verge of bankruptcy, you might want to get him this book to read and start preparing.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
erm, hi dariofoo, if its like that. My dad sell the car to 2nd hand shop, and they pay check for it(the check put my mom name) and my mom use the check go to another 2nd hand car shop to buy a cheap car(under my mom name) and let my dad drive, is it ok ? about the house with the joint name, they cant take right?
Shades
post Dec 19 2011, 11:16 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 16 2011, 12:35 AM)
If I'm not mistaken, the CCC replaces the need for a CFO. With the CCC, the owner can move into the unit already. I think this came into place sometime in 2007 to eliminate the need for CFO, which was a cumbersome process, full of red tape. However, if i'm not mistaken, it only applies to new properties which are not larger than 2 stories.

If your property fits the description, then the bank ought to be satisfied with proof of a copy of the CCC in order to release the balance loan sum.  icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thanks Dario... have a good one.
SUSjalsrix
post Dec 20 2011, 09:00 PM

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Can anybody tell me how many pages is the income tax ckht2a form ?

if the buyer fills up himself, is it difficult ?

why the lawyer charge me rm 200 if it is simple ?
triangle
post Dec 21 2011, 10:54 PM

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hi guys...i need some information..

case 1: i am sabahan but i got land in labuan which is under federal teritory, and i want to rent our the land, so which lawyer i should go for tenancy agreement ..is it sabah side or labuan side?

case 2: i got 1 lawyer handling my transfer of land from my late father to me (son) but the lawyer seem drag out the time almost 2 year. is it normal, or can i sue them back? any advice?

thank you in advance..

TSdariofoo
post Dec 22 2011, 01:36 AM

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QUOTE(triangle @ Dec 21 2011, 10:54 PM)
hi guys...i need some information..

case 1: i am sabahan but i got land in labuan which is under federal teritory, and i want to rent our the land, so which lawyer i should go for tenancy agreement ..is it sabah side or labuan side?

case 2: i got 1 lawyer handling my transfer of land from my late father to me (son) but the lawyer seem drag out the time almost 2 year. is it normal, or can i sue them back? any advice?

thank you in advance..
*
1) When it comes to legal jurisdiction, Labuan is considered part of Sabah. Cases from Labuan fall under the jurisdiction of the High Court of Sabah. When it comes to tenancy agreement, I don't think it makes much of a difference. Look at which is more convenient. Perhaps a lawyer based in Labuan itself can offer lower disbursements as they would not need to travel further?

2) Can't advise much without further facts. There must be a reason for the delay. Can't just assume and blame the lawyer. Get an explanation in writing from the lawyer - probably a chronology of events for the past two years. Then you would be able to assess the situation more clearly.

icon_rolleyes.gif

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 22 2011, 01:37 AM
keongzai79
post Dec 22 2011, 09:08 AM

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Dear all,

I have a question here. I'm selling off my leasehold apartment (without strata title, VP in 2008) and the buyer bank already paid up my oustanding loan with my banker (begining of Oct,2011). I thought i can get my balance pretty fast but my S&P lawyer claimed that they still need to get the "revoke? or rework permit" from Shah Alam high court. Till today, i heard that it still prnding there since the submission on end Oct. Is it true that the process in high court will take that long? I had signed the S&P in on early March, 2011. sad.gif

This post has been edited by keongzai79: Dec 22 2011, 09:09 AM
kaitouace
post Dec 22 2011, 11:12 AM

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Dear All,

I have a problem here. This is supposedly a straight forward case, has turn convoluted thanks to family and lawyers handling the issue.

My dad passed away about 10years ago. He has a property that he co-owned with my uncle. Due to some falling out, my mum asked my uncle to sell his half of the property. He consented to transferring the property with the condition that my mum has a 2nd person to co-sign the property. At that time, my sister and I are not 18 yet, so we can't sign for the property.

My mum got another person from her side of the family to co-sign. Transfer were done, and all is cleared off. Now, the main problem comes in. My sister and I are of age now, so my mum wants to transfer the property to 3 names, i.e my mum, my sister and I. She got a lawyer to try to handle the case, but not long after, he dropped the case. Next up, another lawyer took over the case, but they dropped out after that.

Currently, we have a new lawyer, but they have no news for almost a year.

My question is, why is it taking them so long just to transfer? It has been over 5yrs since my mum started this process. Is there any way for us to make the process faster?
TSdariofoo
post Dec 22 2011, 11:33 AM

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QUOTE(keongzai79 @ Dec 22 2011, 09:08 AM)
Dear all,

I have a question here. I'm selling off my leasehold apartment (without strata title, VP in 2008) and the buyer bank already paid up my oustanding loan with my banker (begining of Oct,2011). I thought i can get my balance pretty fast but my S&P lawyer claimed that they still need to get the "revoke? or rework permit" from Shah Alam high court. Till today, i heard that it still prnding there since the submission on end Oct. Is it true that the process in high court will take that long? I had signed the S&P in on early March, 2011.  sad.gif
*
The lawyer is referring to revocation of Power of Attorney (revoke PA is the common term used). Unfortunately, Shah Alam Court is very very slow when it comes to revocation of PA. If KL Court it can be done on the spot. For Shah Alam easily have to wait 2 weeks at the earliest and as for latest, there is no limit. Depends on the efficiency of the staff who is in charge. Your lawyer has to keep following up. Furthermore, as it is end of the year and holiday season, it is usual for things at Govt offices to progress slower than usual. sad.gif

For leasehold with consent, it is usual for SPAs to take 6-9 months to complete.

Hope yours can be completed soon. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 22 2011, 11:37 AM

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QUOTE(kaitouace @ Dec 22 2011, 11:12 AM)
Currently, we have a new lawyer, but they have no news for almost a year.

My question is, why is it taking them so long just to transfer? It has been over 5yrs since my mum started this process. Is there any way for us to make the process faster?
*
It shouldn't take very long. There's no charge or assignment to a bank in exchange for a loan right? If title is clean then transfer can be done very fast.

Write to your lawyer and ask for a written chronology of events for the past one year. Give them 7 days to reply and state that failing which you will file an official complaint with the Advocates & Solicitors Discip Board. Then wait for their reply. Come back for further enquiries.

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triangle
post Dec 22 2011, 10:45 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 22 2011, 01:36 AM)
1) When it comes to legal jurisdiction, Labuan is considered part of Sabah. Cases from Labuan fall under the jurisdiction of the High Court of Sabah. When it comes to tenancy agreement, I don't think it makes much of a difference. Look at which is more convenient. Perhaps a lawyer based in Labuan itself can offer lower disbursements as they would not need to travel further?

2) Can't advise much without further facts. There must be a reason for the delay. Can't just assume and blame the lawyer. Get an explanation in writing from the lawyer - probably a chronology of events for the past two years. Then you would be able to assess the situation more clearly.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
thnx dariofoo ....mostly how much it will cost for a lawywr to make a tenancy agreement..im realy dont know about this,
TSdariofoo
post Dec 22 2011, 11:49 PM

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QUOTE(triangle @ Dec 22 2011, 10:45 PM)
thnx dariofoo ....mostly how much it will cost for a lawywr to make a tenancy agreement..im realy dont know about this,
*
For Semenanjung Malaysia, under the SRO - it is fixed at 25% of monthly rental or RM300, whichever is higher. For East Malaysia, I'm not sure.
keongzai79
post Dec 23 2011, 01:14 PM

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Thanks alot for the reply,Dario...
dunno how long I need to wsit for the mentioned revoke PA...
talk about the efficiency of our civil servants.....sian liao!
triangle
post Dec 23 2011, 10:11 PM

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ic...thnx dario..
sunnyK
post Dec 24 2011, 09:29 AM

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dear all

how do we count and calculate working days on letter of offer ? does it commence on the date of signing or the following day

thanks

This post has been edited by sunnyK: Dec 24 2011, 11:46 PM
Milo_O
post Dec 24 2011, 04:46 PM

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@ SunnyK,
The next following working day is count as the 1st day.

This post has been edited by Milo_O: Dec 24 2011, 04:47 PM
Goodemon
post Dec 24 2011, 05:20 PM

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Hi dariofoo,

Need your advice.
I had bought an apartment last year June at RM250k.
Lawyer informed that the vendor is given 12+6 mths to claim the strata title.

» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «



Today, I saw the same unit for sale at RM390k.
I contacted the agent and it is the same unit I bought last year.

Can the vendor put the property on sale again and can I take any legal action against him?
If he failed to claim the strata title within the timeframe, 10% will be returned back and the SnP will be terminated? Just like that?

Thank you in advance for your advice.

MERRY CHRISTMAS TO EVERYONE~!

This post has been edited by Goodemon: Dec 24 2011, 05:37 PM
raul88
post Dec 24 2011, 06:47 PM

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Hi guys,

not sure this is the right section or not

here's the situation, my parent house is currently under renovation
contractor gave quotation RM100,000, we pay, they promised to be completed in january
project is about 50-60% completed (about 2-3 weeks behind schedule)

now, the contractor saying money finished already
now ask my parent to top up claimed material cost rise (harga semasa-in his own word)

my question is can my parent take legal action against them, what are our chances of winning
and what should be our next step

thank you
TSdariofoo
post Dec 24 2011, 07:01 PM

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QUOTE(sunnyK @ Dec 24 2011, 09:29 AM)
dear all

how do we count and calculate workings days on letter of offer ? does it commence on the date of signing or the following day

thanks
*
Time starts to run from the next working day icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 24 2011, 07:08 PM

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QUOTE(Goodemon @ Dec 24 2011, 05:20 PM)
Hi dariofoo,

Need your advice.
I had bought an apartment last year June at RM250k.
Lawyer informed that the vendor is given 12+6 mths to claim the strata title.

» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «

Today, I saw the same unit for sale at RM390k.
I contacted the agent and it is the same unit I bought last year.

Can the vendor put the property on sale again and can I take any legal action against him?
If he failed to claim the strata title within the timeframe, 10% will be returned back and the SnP will be terminated? Just like that?

Thank you in advance for your advice.

MERRY CHRISTMAS TO EVERYONE~!
*
He can't put it up for sale when he has agreed in a written contract to sell it to you.

The clause will only apply if the vendor has indeed applied for the title and he failed to get it extracted within 18 months.

If he did not act on it and merely waited for time to run, then he cannot rely on that clause.

Time to check with the vendor as to the status of the strata title. It's been too long. He's probably not following up and merely waiting for time to end, just to frustrate you and try to sneak out using that clause.

icon_rolleyes.gif

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 24 2011, 07:09 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 24 2011, 07:14 PM

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QUOTE(raul88 @ Dec 24 2011, 06:47 PM)
Hi guys,

not sure this is the right section or not

here's the situation, my parent house is currently under renovation
contractor gave quotation RM100,000, we pay, they promised to be completed in january
project is about 50-60% completed (about 2-3 weeks behind schedule)

now, the contractor saying money finished already
now ask my parent to top up claimed material cost rise (harga semasa-in his own word)

my question is can my parent take legal action against them, what are our chances of winning
and what should be our next step

thank you
*
This is the right section. Welcome. smile.gif

Sounds like breach of contract by the contractor against your parents. I hope that there is a detailed quotation given out by the contractor which both parties have agreed and signed.

If cakap mulut contract then how you want to prove that he agreed to do the whole thing for RM100K?

The next step is to see a lawyer. But before that you better weigh all consequences if the contractor is still in the house, doing work. Remember he can sabotage things. Perhaps tell him to stop work first and get his things out for awhile. Then seek legal advice.

icon_rolleyes.gif
raul88
post Dec 24 2011, 07:37 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 24 2011, 07:14 PM)
This is the right section. Welcome.  smile.gif

Sounds like breach of contract by the contractor against your parents. I hope that there is a detailed quotation given out by the contractor which both parties have agreed and signed.

If cakap mulut contract then how you want to prove that he agreed to do the whole thing for RM100K?

The next step is to see a lawyer. But before that you better weigh all consequences if the contractor is still in the house, doing work. Remember he can sabotage things. Perhaps tell him to stop work first and get his things out for awhile. Then seek legal advice.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
thank you.

we have black and white
but the detail I'm not so sure since my parent didnt disclose it to me
my mum busy browsing internet about consumer tribunal as I write this

thats the problem now
because project is only about 50-60% completed but they used up all the finance already

we scared about this sabotage thing as well


Goodemon
post Dec 24 2011, 10:31 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 24 2011, 07:08 PM)
He can't put it up for sale when he has agreed in a written  contract to sell it to you.

The clause will only apply if the vendor has indeed applied for the title and he failed to get it extracted within 18 months.

If he did not act on it and merely waited for time to run, then he cannot rely on that clause.

Time to check with the vendor as to the status of the strata title. It's been too long. He's probably not following up and merely waiting for time to end, just to frustrate you and try to sneak out using that clause.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Well noted.
Probably I did not follow up with the vendor as well. sad.gif

Thanks for the advice. notworthy.gif

This post has been edited by Goodemon: Dec 24 2011, 10:32 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 25 2011, 02:42 PM

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QUOTE(raul88 @ Dec 24 2011, 07:37 PM)
thank you.

we have black and white
but the detail I'm not so sure since my parent didnt disclose it to me
my mum busy browsing internet about consumer tribunal as I write this

thats the problem now
because project is only about 50-60% completed but they used up all the finance already

we scared about this sabotage thing as well
*
Hope it is detailed enough then.

Your parents would be better off getting a lawyer to sort this out. With all due respect, the tribunal is mostly used for minor disputes and it would not be much of a "threat" to the contractor if you resort to that. A formal letter of demand would be better in these circumstances. Just my opinion.

icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 25 2011, 02:43 PM

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QUOTE(Goodemon @ Dec 24 2011, 10:31 PM)
Well noted.
Probably I did not follow up with the vendor as well.  sad.gif

Thanks for the advice.  notworthy.gif
*
Your lawyer ought to follow up with the vendor, or the vendor's lawyer, at least once a month. Check with your lawyer. icon_rolleyes.gif
2ack
post Dec 25 2011, 04:24 PM

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abu plans to charge his property to assilah to secure a short term loan.
both of them agree not to register the charge in order to avoid extra cost eventho form 16A and the annexure of the charge have been executed by both of them.

by law is it wrong?and under which section can u consider it wrong?and can u pinpoint me where is it wrong?tq so much if u can help me notworthy.gif notworthy.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 25 2011, 07:44 PM

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QUOTE(2ack @ Dec 25 2011, 04:24 PM)
abu plans to charge his property to assilah to secure a short term loan.
both of them agree not to register the charge in order to avoid extra cost eventho form 16A and the annexure of the charge have been executed by both of them.

by law is it wrong?and under which section can u consider it wrong?and can u pinpoint me where is it wrong?tq so much if u can help me notworthy.gif  notworthy.gif
*
It's not wrong by law, it's just ridiculous for assilah not to insist on the charge to be created as she will not have any security over the property, in the event abu does not want to pay, and then transfers it to another party to defeat her interest. Unless assilah is not really interested in the property and she is confident that she can sue abu in his personal capacity and make him pay via other means?

Registration of Form 16A does not cost more than RM100 and stamping is a mere RM10.

Tell assilah to think twice. Unless she has an ace tucked up her sleeve.

icon_rolleyes.gif

lyt25_1234
post Dec 27 2011, 03:57 PM

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Individual title? Master title? strata title?
What are all these?

For residential house, is it called Individual title?
For shoplots, it's master or strata title?
and for condos, it's strata title?
clicktiming
post Dec 27 2011, 06:50 PM

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Dear all,

I have a house under my name, now i want to give to my wife, may i know which is the cheapest way to do this?
gasper
post Dec 28 2011, 09:15 AM

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QUOTE(clicktiming @ Dec 27 2011, 06:50 PM)
Dear all,

I have a house under my name, now i want to give to my wife, may i know which is the cheapest way to do this?
*
by Will...
zigot14
post Dec 28 2011, 11:15 AM

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hi,

need some help perusing the lawyer's fees pls? atched

Also actually, had a damn hard time with this lawyer just to complete a simple S&P transaction. Took 10 months just to get consent from land office. Had many delays and the owner had to go do things himself several times.

I plan to protest and not pay the full lawyer fees as definitely got a very bad service. But need to know from which expense item i can ask for discount/reduction?

Thanks.


Added on December 28, 2011, 11:16 am
QUOTE(zigot14 @ Dec 28 2011, 11:15 AM)
hi,

need some help perusing the lawyer's fees pls? atched

Also actually, had a damn hard time with this lawyer just to complete a simple S&P transaction. Took 10 months just to get consent from land office. Had many delays and the owner had to go do things himself several times.

I plan to protest and not pay the full lawyer fees as definitely got a very bad service. But need to know from which expense item i can ask for discount/reduction?

Thanks.
*
prop price is 320k

This post has been edited by zigot14: Dec 28 2011, 11:16 AM


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TSdariofoo
post Dec 29 2011, 10:25 AM

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QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Dec 27 2011, 03:57 PM)
For residential house, is it called Individual title?
*
For landed properties, it is called individual title. The actual term is Issue Document of Title (IDT). That is the original title which is given to the owner (and most often is kept by the bank as security for a loan given out)

QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Dec 27 2011, 03:57 PM)
For shoplots, it's master or strata title?
*
It's individual title.


QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Dec 27 2011, 03:57 PM)
and for condos, it's strata title?
*
Condos, apartments and even gated and guarded community schemes are strata title.

Master title refers to the title of a lot of land (or several lots of land) where a condo/apartment project is to be built and where strata title will be issued subsequently upon completion of the project. So basically the master title would be subdivided into strata titles - which are individual titles for such projects.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 29 2011, 10:27 AM

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QUOTE(clicktiming @ Dec 27 2011, 06:50 PM)
Dear all,

I have a house under my name, now i want to give to my wife, may i know which is the cheapest way to do this?
*
Is the property still encumbered to the bank? Or is title clean?
TSdariofoo
post Dec 29 2011, 10:29 AM

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QUOTE(zigot14 @ Dec 28 2011, 11:15 AM)
hi,

need some help perusing the lawyer's fees pls? atched

Also actually, had a damn hard time with this lawyer just to complete a simple S&P transaction. Took 10 months just to get consent from land office. Had many delays and the owner had to go do things himself several times.

I plan to protest and not pay the full lawyer fees as definitely got a very bad service. But need to know from which expense item i can ask for discount/reduction?

Thanks.


Added on December 28, 2011, 11:16 am

prop price is 320k
*
Please compare with the samples in v1 of the thread. There's plenty there. Please bear with that until I prepare the sample Note of Charges and put it up at page 1 of this thread as I had stated I would. Been busy as I celebrate Christmas.

Disbursements can be reduced. However, requests for reduction is often done at the beginning of the transaction, not at the end.
trust86
post Dec 29 2011, 07:20 PM

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hi... i cant change the name of the condo strata title under my name due to there was a caveat lodge with it and it has been lost cos the developer had been bankrupt and they need to do a land search to know the owner of caveat and withdraw it...then only the strata title can be changed under my name......but before that the lawyer already mentioned that it cant be searched.... so when the time he presented to the land office...it get rejected......is it possible that the name of the owner of caveat cant be searched?? if let say it able to search...but the lawyer said he doesn't know who is the person and cant be proceed....is there any other solution.......appreciate for your advice on this...thanks...

This post has been edited by trust86: Dec 29 2011, 07:32 PM
hoongling
post Dec 29 2011, 10:39 PM

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I do not have a question but I am really learning a lot in this post and how I wish this thread was started way back 4 years ago when I first started investing. I am super impressed! Dario should have a Pusat Khidmat Lowyat Dario!
Airoha
post Dec 29 2011, 11:43 PM

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Hi, can any lawyer advise whether the developer S&P lawyer can do this?
The scenario is like this:-
I bought a condo with S&P free using developer lawyer. S&P and loan agreement signed and stamped already. Today, S&P lawyer call and said the developer want to amend something on 1 page of the S&P and the effect to me is minimum. (I haven't received what is the changes). The lawyer will send 4 copies of A4 papers to replace that page to me and ask me to initial of all 4 pages of A4 paper and sent remaining 3 pages to her. My question is, is this common practice in Malaysia? Is the S&P still legally valid? IF I refuse to the changes, what can I do? (The developer is a listed company)

This post has been edited by Airoha: Dec 29 2011, 11:43 PM
littlegirlmsia
post Dec 30 2011, 10:24 AM

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Dear Dario,

I just moved into a new Condo that i bought from the developer. And within the first week, my bathroom was flooded with human waste. The management was on Christmas holidays, and i had to tahan the smell and unhygienic bathroom for two days before they fixed it. They blamed it on the contractors from the renovations. I feel so disgucted that i haven't been using the bathroom and even the attached bedroom. May i know can i ask for compensation?
tobetest
post Dec 30 2011, 11:25 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 29 2011, 10:27 AM)
Is the property still encumbered to the bank? Or is title clean?
*
the house is clean title under my name, now i wish to put only my wife name, which way is cheapest way to do this?
TSdariofoo
post Dec 30 2011, 01:18 PM

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QUOTE(trust86 @ Dec 29 2011, 07:20 PM)
hi... i cant change the name of the condo strata title under my name due to there was a caveat lodge with it and it has been lost cos the developer had been bankrupt and they need to do a land search to know the owner of caveat and withdraw it...then only the strata title can be changed under my name......but before that the lawyer already mentioned that it cant be searched.... so when the time he presented to the land office...it get rejected......is it possible that the name of the owner of caveat cant be searched?? if let say it able to search...but the lawyer said he doesn't know who is the person and cant be proceed....is there any other solution.......appreciate for your advice on this...thanks...
*
Is it a private caveat?

If it is a private caveat, it can be removed via an application to the land office by the land owner, whom in this case would be the Official Liquidator or a private firm acting as liquidator. However, in reality, they would be hesitant to do so as it would incur more costs for them. The liquidator's job is to sell of the assets and deal with the liabilities of the company in liquidation with the lowest costs spent possible.

The other alternative is for your lawyer to write to the caveator directly and seek his consideration to remove the caveat, as the developer is in liquidation anyway.

Yes, the particulars of the caveator would be in the title search. Name and address. Some title searches (weirdly) would only disclose the name and ic number (or company name and regis number), so you'll need to go one step further and conduct an IC/Company search to get the address.

All the best. icon_rolleyes.gif

TSdariofoo
post Dec 30 2011, 01:21 PM

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QUOTE(hoongling @ Dec 29 2011, 10:39 PM)
I do not have a question but I am really learning a lot in this post and how I wish this thread was started way back 4 years ago when I first started investing.
*
Cheers for taking the time to do so. notworthy.gif Knowledge is power. nod.gif

If you're free you can start with v1 of this thread as well.

QUOTE(hoongling @ Dec 29 2011, 10:39 PM)
Dario should have a Pusat Khidmat Lowyat Dario!
*
Haha. I think this is the place biggrin.gif

PS: Checked out your website. Your portfolio is pretty impressive.  notworthy.gif


This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 30 2011, 01:32 PM
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post Dec 30 2011, 01:32 PM

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QUOTE(Airoha @ Dec 29 2011, 11:43 PM)
Hi, can any lawyer advise whether the developer S&P lawyer can do this?
The scenario is like this:-
I bought a condo with S&P free using developer lawyer. S&P and loan agreement signed and stamped already. Today, S&P lawyer call and said the developer want to amend something on 1 page of the S&P and the effect to me is minimum. (I haven't received what is the changes). The lawyer will send 4 copies of A4 papers to replace that page to me and ask me to initial of all 4 pages of A4 paper and sent remaining 3 pages to her. My question is, is this common practice in Malaysia? Is the S&P still legally valid? IF I refuse to the changes, what can I do? (The developer is a listed company)
*
Yes, parties can amend the SPA. But do check what it is. Probably a typo? Error? At least they should inform you what it is.

Amendments are practised but am not sure if it is COMMON. Can't back it up with any database or somesort. SPA would still be valid,no prob.

If you refuse? What if the amendment goes to the root of the contract and affects the performance of the contract? Then would it not end up being detrimental to you?


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post Dec 30 2011, 01:41 PM

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QUOTE(littlegirlmsia @ Dec 30 2011, 10:24 AM)
Dear Dario,

I just moved into a new Condo that i bought from the developer. And within the first week, my bathroom was flooded with human waste. The management was on Christmas holidays, and i had to tahan the smell and unhygienic bathroom for two days before they fixed it. They blamed it on the contractors from the renovations. I feel so disgucted that i haven't been using the bathroom and even the attached bedroom. May i know can i ask for compensation?
*
The developer fixed it at their own cost right? Then you have not suffered any direct pecuniary losses.

Other losses - Trauma? Toilet-Phobia (google it up, there is such a thing) ? Anguish? Depression?

If you want to prove mental suffering, anguish, trauma, etc, you need to get a psychiatric report to confirm that your mental condition is a direct consequence of the crappy (no pun intended) service by the developer.

That itself would not be easy.

Then it goes to assessment of damages (compensation) - how much can you get for such mental suffering, anguish, trauma, etc, ? How to assess? How long is the impact? Curable? Permanent?

Do bear in mind that you need to bear the costs of the medical reports, etc first, without any guarantee of success. So do bear the pros and cons before pursuing the matter further.

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post Dec 30 2011, 01:45 PM

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QUOTE(tobetest @ Dec 30 2011, 11:25 AM)
the house is clean title under my name, now i wish to put only my wife name, which way is cheapest way to do this?
*
Excellent. Do a clean transfer with "love and affection from husband to wife" as consideration via a memorandum of transfer (MOT).

100% exemption upon stamp duty on the MOT and perhaps just few hundred in disbursements.

Legal fees would be a reasonable figure not more than the scaled fees according to the market value of the property at the time of transfer. In other words, it's negotiable.

The work is minimal anyway, as there is no SPA involved. Don't be tricked into paying more for preparation of Deed of Gift, etc. That is not needed based on the facts of your case, i.e. from husband to wife.

All in all, can be completed within 3-4 weeks at the soonest.

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GuyM
post Dec 30 2011, 01:59 PM

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DarioFoo,

Just wanna wish you Happy New Year and may you have a thunderous dragon year!!!

Cheers as always!!!
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post Dec 30 2011, 02:32 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 13 2011, 12:49 PM)
I answered it in para (3) - 0.5% of loan sum. Flat rate. 20% less if Islamic financing.

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*
If i am a first time home buyer and using islamic financing, do i get 50% + 20% exemption for the stamp duty of loan agreement?
tobetest
post Dec 30 2011, 03:39 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 30 2011, 01:45 PM)
Excellent. Do a clean transfer with "love and affection from husband to wife" as consideration via a memorandum of transfer (MOT).

100% exemption upon stamp duty on the MOT and perhaps just few hundred in disbursements.

Legal fees would be a reasonable figure not more than the scaled fees according to the market value of the property at the time of transfer. In other words, it's negotiable.

The work is minimal anyway, as there is no SPA involved. Don't be tricked into paying more for preparation of Deed of Gift, etc. That is not needed based on the facts of your case, i.e. from husband to wife.

All in all, can be completed within 3-4 weeks at the soonest.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
thanks notworthy.gif
lyt25_1234
post Dec 30 2011, 04:29 PM

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Hi Dariofoo,

I have a situation here. I just sold my property and the purchaser's lawyer promised that she will inform the purchaser to get the Cukai Pintu to assing to his account and cancel mine, but after more than few months, I received the letter for the Cukai Pintu which is still under my name.

What should I do now? Call the purchaser lawyer to chase the purchaser to do it? Or I settle the bill first and then claim from the purchaser's lawyer?
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QUOTE(GuyM @ Dec 30 2011, 01:59 PM)
DarioFoo,

Just wanna wish you Happy New Year and may you have a thunderous dragon year!!!

Cheers as always!!!
*
Happy new year to you too, chief. Have a great year ahead. notworthy.gif

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SUSleechers
post Dec 31 2011, 07:51 AM

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dario, altough this is not really a legal case, but i would like to seek for your advice.

as you may know, i am in the middle of buying an apartment, through an agent and this had come to the final step (hopefully) that is waiting for 1st release from the bank.

it is sub purchase, and the vendor (purchaser) keep chasing me about the payment, it already more than 10days (as promised by the bank, 10 working days for them to release payment) i am sub purchaser.

1. is it normal for the vendor to chase me, and not through agent? what is the purpose of the agent actually?

2. according to SPA, it is 3+1 from the date of getting the state consent, so i am not really worried but me too are really hopeful that i will be able to get the keys as fast as possible, so that i can proceed with with renovation etc.. should i worried that this process will pending at bank stage for quite a long period? this is maybank btw..

3. based on the receipt, the owner already made payment for maintenance etc to management office until december, let say i dont get the key by january 2012, do i need to pay for the management fee for january or do owner need to settle for it? according to agent i need to settle 3months of maintenance fee that is to pay back to owner for oct, nov and dis. is this normal practice?

please help

Milo_O
post Dec 31 2011, 01:43 PM

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Question: EPF withdrawal

Situation: Me and my girlfriend as a buyer wud like to withdraw EPF Account 2 for house withdrawal for a joint ownership for a property.
I already have a joint ownership of one property with my mother
My girlfriend already have a joint ownership of one property with his brother.

In this situation, can me and my girlfriend still withdraw from EPF to purchase a property ?

icon_question.gif sweat.gif rclxub.gif

This post has been edited by Milo_O: Dec 31 2011, 01:44 PM
TSdariofoo
post Jan 1 2012, 01:45 AM

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QUOTE(silversuave @ Dec 30 2011, 02:32 PM)
If i am a first time home buyer and using islamic financing, do i get 50% + 20% exemption for the stamp duty of loan agreement?
*
nod.gif
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post Jan 1 2012, 01:48 AM

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QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Dec 30 2011, 04:29 PM)
Hi Dariofoo,

I have a situation here. I just sold my property and the purchaser's lawyer promised that she will inform the purchaser to get the Cukai Pintu to assing to his account and cancel mine, but after more than few months, I received the letter for the Cukai Pintu which is still under my name.

What should I do now? Call the purchaser lawyer to chase the purchaser to do it? Or I settle the bill first and then claim from the purchaser's lawyer?
*
You don't need to pay. Forward the bill to the purchaser's solicitors for onward transmission to the purchaser, and remind them that the purchaser has yet to do the change of name at the local authority. Put it down in writing. Insist on a receipt to be sent to you after payment so that you know it has been paid. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jan 1 2012, 01:52 AM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Dec 31 2011, 01:43 PM)
Question: EPF withdrawal

Situation: Me and my girlfriend as a buyer wud like to withdraw EPF Account 2 for house withdrawal for a joint ownership for a property.
              I already have a joint ownership of one property with my mother
              My girlfriend already have a joint ownership of one property with his brother.

In this situation, can me and my girlfriend still withdraw from EPF to purchase a property ?

icon_question.gif sweat.gif  rclxub.gif
*
You did not mention if it is the first time which both parties are making the withdrawal from EPF.

In other words, did either party make a withdrawal from EPF when purchasing the first house respectively? If yes, then you can't make another withdrawal until that house is sold off.

Another thing to note is that for withdrawal for purchase of property with a party who is not a kin, the other party must be the purchaser AND borrower as well.

icon_rolleyes.gif

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post Jan 1 2012, 01:58 AM

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QUOTE(leechers @ Dec 31 2011, 07:51 AM)
dario, altough this is not really a legal case, but i would like to seek for your advice.

as you may know, i am in the middle of buying an apartment, through an agent and this had come to the final step (hopefully) that is waiting for 1st release from the bank.

it is sub purchase, and the vendor (purchaser) keep chasing me about the payment, it already more than 10days (as promised by the bank, 10 working days for them to release payment) i am sub purchaser.

1. is it normal for the vendor to chase me, and not through agent? what is the purpose of the agent actually?

2. according to SPA, it is 3+1 from the date of getting the state consent, so i am not really worried but me too are really hopeful that i will be able to get the keys as fast as possible, so that i can proceed with with renovation etc.. should i worried that this process will pending at bank stage for quite a long period? this is maybank btw..

3. based on the receipt, the owner already made payment for maintenance etc to management office until december, let say i dont get the key by january 2012, do i need to pay for the management fee for january or do owner need to settle for it? according to agent i need to settle 3months of maintenance fee that is to pay back to owner for oct, nov and dis. is this normal practice?

please help
*
1. Vendor should buzz your lawyer, not you. Vendor should not have direct contact with you since you have a solicitor who is representing you. As for your query on purpose of agent - you'd better off asking an agent rather than here. nod.gif

2. Sorry I don't get your question.

3. Owner settles all utilities up to date of surrender of keys. It will be pro-rated, though some vendors don't mind and round it up to the month to make it easier. Perhaps the 3 months maintenance refers to advance deposit required by the management office. I'd suggest that you ask your solicitor to just check with the office to see what the rules are. Don't just take the agent or vendor's words at face value. And ask for receipt for payment for January 2012 also. Your bank will require it for the final drawdown/release.

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post Jan 1 2012, 02:00 AM

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icon_rolleyes.gif HAPPY NEW YEAR 2012 TO ALL! MAY YOU ALL HAVE A BLESSED YEAR AHEAD! nod.gif icon_rolleyes.gif

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SUSleechers
post Jan 1 2012, 04:02 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 1 2012, 01:58 AM)
1. Vendor should buzz your lawyer, not you. Vendor should not have direct contact with you since you have a solicitor who is representing you. As for your query on purpose of agent - you'd better off asking an agent rather than here.  nod.gif

2. Sorry I don't get your question.

3. Owner settles all utilities up to date of surrender of keys. It will be pro-rated, though some vendors don't mind and round it up to the month to make it easier. Perhaps the 3 months maintenance refers to advance deposit required by the management office. I'd suggest that you ask your solicitor to just check with the office to see what the rules are. Don't just take the agent or vendor's words at face value. And ask for receipt for payment for January 2012 also. Your bank will require it for the final drawdown/release.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
dario, thanks for your advice. appreciate it every bits.

for no 2, it actually refers to 3+1 period of which further delay i will need to pay penalty for late payment, something like that, and based on S&P, it stated that the 3+1 starts from the date the state consent letter received, not the date S&P was signed. if im not mistaken the state consent letter received on end of november 2011, so should i need to worry for any late payment penalty?
yee5428
post Jan 2 2012, 09:36 AM

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urgent reply needed..
i rented a apartment since june 2009, for 2 years contact. on mid of dec'11, owner suddenly increase the renter from rm520 to rm700. we try to negotiate with owner, but she not agree,somemore today say want us to pay rm750 and just reserve 1 month for us to stay. can i know owner can simply increase the renter after contract expired?
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post Jan 2 2012, 01:35 PM

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QUOTE(leechers @ Jan 1 2012, 04:02 AM)
dario, thanks for your advice. appreciate it every bits.

for no 2, it actually refers to 3+1 period of which further delay i will need to pay penalty for late payment, something like that, and based on S&P, it stated that the 3+1 starts from the date the state consent letter received, not the date S&P was signed. if im not mistaken the state consent letter received on end of november 2011, so should i need to worry for any late payment penalty?
*
Well, you have another 2 months to go and as you said, bank is ready to release first drawdown. That's quite fast actually. nod.gif
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post Jan 2 2012, 01:39 PM

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QUOTE(yee5428 @ Jan 2 2012, 09:36 AM)
urgent reply needed..
i rented a apartment since june 2009, for 2 years contact. on mid of dec'11, owner suddenly increase the renter from rm520 to rm700. we try to negotiate with owner, but she not agree,somemore today say want us to pay rm750 and just reserve 1 month for us to stay. can i know owner can simply increase the renter after contract expired?
*
Once the tenancy expires, the tenancy continues on a month-to-month basis. Landlord has the right to negotiate new terms for continuation of rental. If you don't agree, you have the right to be given notice of one month to vacate the premises. So in this case, either you agree to the new terms or you move out. Remember that during the one month notice period, you still pay the old rental and not the new one. Landlord has no right to impose new rental without your agreement.

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post Jan 2 2012, 02:36 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 2 2012, 01:35 PM)
Well, you have another 2 months to go and as you said, bank is ready to release first drawdown. That's quite fast actually.  nod.gif
*
Thx dario. Really apprecite your advice.
yee5428
post Jan 2 2012, 03:17 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 2 2012, 01:39 PM)
Once the tenancy expires, the tenancy continues on a month-to-month basis. Landlord has the right to negotiate new terms for continuation of rental. If you don't agree, you have the right to be given notice of one month to vacate the premises. So in this case, either you agree to the new terms or you move out. Remember that during the one month notice period, you still pay the old rental and not the new one. Landlord has no right to impose new rental without your agreement.

nod.gif
*
thanks....
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post Jan 2 2012, 03:17 PM

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Dariofoo, happy new year !

Can you tell me where I can get the buyer CKHT income tax form.
I am trying to save money by filling it up myself. Can I download it ? Will the income tax dept accept printer printed forms ?


After I have filled it up, what document do I need to obtain from income tax dept to hand to my lawyer so he can process my MOT ?


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post Jan 2 2012, 04:23 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 1 2012, 01:52 AM)
You did not mention if it is the first time which both parties are making the withdrawal from EPF.

In other words, did either party make a withdrawal from EPF when purchasing the first house respectively? If yes, then you can't make another withdrawal until that house is sold off.

Another thing to note is that for withdrawal for purchase of property with a party who is not a kin, the other party must be the purchaser AND borrower as well.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Hi dariofoo,
Thanks for the respond rclxms.gif
Me and my girlfriend have not made any withdrawal from EPF Account 2 before

thumbup.gif
rukawa_mc
post Jan 2 2012, 05:35 PM

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Dear Dario, need your kind advice on my scenario.

My father had passed away and left a property to us. All siblings agree to sell the property. As such, we had decided to assign a lawyer to make the transfer ownership matter on the grant so that we can sell the property.

My inquiry is,
1. How long would it take to transfer the ownership to our name via lawyer service?
2. Any Procedure / practice we need to take note?
3. How much is the lawyer fees?
4. Who is correct person we should ask to estimate the price of the house? to assign Adjuster or Valuer Or real estate agent? Do you have any recommendation?
5. Hear say, A area's agent cannot take over cases in B area's cases... Is this true?

I feel so helpless.. hope you guys can help me out! thanks~


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post Jan 2 2012, 10:54 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Jan 2 2012, 03:17 PM)
Dariofoo, happy new year !

Can you tell me where I can get the buyer CKHT income tax form.
I am trying to save money by filling it up myself.  Can I download it ? Will the income tax dept accept printer printed forms ?
After I have filled it up, what document do I need to obtain from income tax dept to hand to my lawyer so he can process my MOT ?
*
You can download it from LHDN website.

Yes, they accept printed forms.

You don't need to pass to your lawyer anything. Submission of CKHT forms has nothing to do with MOT.
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post Jan 2 2012, 10:55 PM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Jan 2 2012, 04:23 PM)
Hi dariofoo,
Thanks for the respond  rclxms.gif
Me and my girlfriend have not made any withdrawal from EPF Account 2 before

thumbup.gif
*
Ok cool. As I mentioned, since she is not your kin, she has to be the purchaser and borrower with you as well in order for her to qualify for withdrawal.

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post Jan 2 2012, 11:04 PM

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QUOTE(rukawa_mc @ Jan 2 2012, 05:35 PM)
Dear Dario, need your kind advice on my scenario.

My father had passed away and left a property to us. All siblings agree to sell the property. As such, we had decided to assign a lawyer to make the transfer ownership matter on the grant so that we can sell the property.

My inquiry is,
1. How long would it take to transfer the ownership to our name via lawyer service?
2. Any Procedure / practice we need to take note?
3. How much is the lawyer fees?
4. Who is correct person we should ask to estimate the price of the house? to assign Adjuster or Valuer Or real estate agent? Do you have any recommendation?
5. Hear say, A area's agent cannot take over cases in B area's cases... Is this true?

I feel so helpless.. hope you guys can help me out! thanks~
*
1. Depends on how much property involved, whether there are outstanding liabilities, collection of documents in relation to assets, etc. It's hard to tell. Depends on how efficient your lawyer is as well.

2. Just make sure that complete documentation is given to your lawyer from the first point itself. Even if it takes time, dig up everything and compile it properly before handing it over.

3. No fixed scaled fees. Differs from lawyer to lawyer.

4. You're talking about in the future when the property is ready to be put up for sale? With regard to valuer, do you have direct contact to one? Do bear in mind that there are charges to be paid for the valuation. You might as well first go online and check out the prices put up for other units in the same area. After that, if you're confident with the price, you can advertise to sell it on your own or appoint a real estate agent to do the sale for you.

5. Never heard of this before. Funny if it really is true though. biggrin.gif

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Bimbo
post Jan 3 2012, 03:36 PM

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Hi Dario,

I got a Quit Rent & House Assessment question here. My daddy passed away last year and I'm inherited all the assets. One of the assets, is shared ownership house. The ownerships included my elder Uncle & Auntie(this 2 are couple) and younger Uncle. 3 of them now at USA, and they seldom back to Malaysia. I can predict my elder uncle wont come back to M'sia anymore, perhaps younger uncle will.
I have suggested elder uncle to sell house since this is shared and it's better settle earlier as they still alive. But younger uncle refuse to do so due on certain reason. As what I know, shared house required all ownerships agree then only can proceed selling. (I could smell my elder uncle wish to sell too, but he had no words after my younger uncle disagree on that).
So my question is, how I'm going to settle this Quit Rent and House Assessment issue? Since they are at foreign country, any problems sure wont effected them directly but me! And I'm not going to bear this fees since my dad had been paid for more than 20 years, they even not paying a single cents on this house. Some more I got my own property, which is out of my capable to bear this extra expenses. (I been moved out from that house, now house vacant)
Is it got a better way to settle this with fair since JUAL cannot, and no one willing bear those expenses?
If I resist to pay the bill too, what would comes to me? and the rest owner?

This problem really screw me up cry.gif Hope to get your reply soon. Thanks.


it.fusion
post Jan 3 2012, 03:44 PM

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Hi Dario,

I am purchasing used 150K appt.. and i totaly newbie to on all purchase process between Vendor / Owner / S&P Lawyer / Bank Lawyer..

What shall i expect in S&P ? - and what shall i highlite to the lawyer that is purchaser rights..etc

Please do advice the whole process which may help me on purchasing the unit. thanks smile.gif
rukawa_mc
post Jan 3 2012, 09:00 PM

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Hi Bimbo, i think i have same issue like you do. my father property was bought in 1970s and involved 8 parties sharing together in a grant. im having difficulties on the grant issue as well. I called up the Pejabat Tanah putrajaya and they advice me to refer KL branch which handling individual cases 03-26102019. Maybe you can try to seek their advice. they're very helpful. Good luck!


Added on January 3, 2012, 9:05 pm
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 2 2012, 11:04 PM)
1. Depends on how much property involved, whether there are outstanding liabilities, collection of documents in relation to assets, etc. It's hard to tell. Depends on how efficient your lawyer is as well.

2. Just make sure that complete documentation is given to your lawyer from the first point itself. Even if it takes time, dig up everything and compile it properly before handing it over. 

3. No fixed scaled fees. Differs from lawyer to lawyer.

4. You're talking about in the future when the property is ready to be put up for sale?  With regard to valuer, do you have direct contact to one? Do bear in mind that there are charges to be paid for the valuation. You might as well first go online and check out the prices put up for other units in the same area. After that, if you're confident with the price, you can advertise to sell it on your own or appoint a real estate agent to do the sale for you.

5. Never heard of this before. Funny if it really is true though.  biggrin.gif

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thanks for your prompt reply!
i had find out with some banker and valuer and result not favorable. Maybe it was due to old building as my father and grandma bought it in 1970s.. And I'm confused and having prob with the land title which really really piss me off and frustrated.
I had checked with one Valuer but the charges was WOoaH... hmm.. But i guess I had to pay cos I do not have the source in hand which can clearly show the value of the said of property.. sigh...~

This post has been edited by rukawa_mc: Jan 3 2012, 09:05 PM
SUSjalsrix
post Jan 3 2012, 09:41 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 2 2012, 10:54 PM)
You can download it from LHDN website.

Yes, they accept printed forms.

You don't need to pass to your lawyer anything. Submission of CKHT forms has nothing to do with MOT.
*
Then how will my lawyer know that the buyer has actually submitted it ? Isn't it mandatory to submit ?

The buyer can just lie to the lawyer that he has submitted but actually has not. What are the consequences for the buyer ?


littlegirlmsia
post Jan 3 2012, 11:26 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 30 2011, 01:41 PM)
The developer fixed it at their own cost right? Then you have not suffered any direct pecuniary losses.

Other losses - Trauma? Toilet-Phobia (google it up, there is such a thing) ? Anguish? Depression?

If you want to prove mental suffering, anguish, trauma, etc, you need to get a psychiatric report to confirm that your mental condition is a direct consequence of the crappy (no pun intended) service by the developer.

That itself would not be easy.

Then it goes to assessment of damages (compensation) - how much can you get for such mental suffering, anguish, trauma, etc, ? How to assess? How long is the impact? Curable? Permanent?

Do bear in mind that you need to bear the costs of the medical reports, etc first, without any guarantee of success. So do bear the pros and cons before pursuing the matter further.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thank you for your advice. You are right, it is a long road. I actually had the phobia to use the toilet, even after i used Dettol, Bleach, and acid to wash my toilet, i didn't dare to use the toilet until 4 days ago. And guess what? Today, when i came back, i saw the same problem again, and this time the human waste is even more that the last time. And it reached the door. I have contacted the Developer and the person in charge said all i could do is to wait for the plumber to come tmr. And i have to take leave to do that. And as i am writing now, the waste is still flooding my bathroom and i am so worried that it will flow out, and spoil my timber flooring and my expensive new built in wardrobe. It is worrying me. This is really menatlly torturing.

I called the realtor who works in the Real Estate Agency that exclusive agency that sells this condo during the construction period. He told me that after the handover of the keys, he got to know that this developer used cheap materials to cut costs. So, intead of two different piping for shower drain and sewage darin, they combine into one big pipe, that's why the human waste overflow from the shower drain.

Dario, plase advise me what else i can do? I do not want to face the same problem again, even after they "fixed" it tmr.

sad.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jan 4 2012, 12:54 AM

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QUOTE(Bimbo @ Jan 3 2012, 03:36 PM)
Hi Dario,

I got a Quit Rent & House Assessment question here. My daddy passed away last year and I'm inherited all the assets. One of the assets, is shared ownership house. The ownerships included my elder Uncle & Auntie(this 2 are couple) and younger Uncle. 3 of them now at USA, and they seldom back to Malaysia. I can predict my elder uncle wont come back to M'sia anymore, perhaps younger uncle will.
I have suggested elder uncle to sell house since this is shared and it's better settle earlier as they still alive. But younger uncle refuse to do so due on certain reason. As what I know, shared house required all ownerships agree then only can proceed selling. (I could smell my elder uncle wish to sell too, but he had no words after my younger uncle disagree on that).
So my question is, how I'm going to settle this Quit Rent and House Assessment issue? Since they are at foreign country, any problems sure wont effected them directly but me! And I'm not going to bear this fees since my dad had been paid for more than 20 years, they even not paying a single cents on this house.  Some more I got my own property, which is out of my capable to bear this extra expenses. (I been moved out from that house, now house vacant)
Is it got a better way to settle this with fair since JUAL cannot, and no one willing bear those expenses?
If I resist to pay the bill too, what would comes to me? and the rest owner?

This problem really screw me up cry.gif Hope to get your reply soon. Thanks.
*
After separating the wheat from the chaff, I think what you're asking is - what action can the authorities take against the owners of the property if you fail to pay quit rent or assessment, right?

Firstly there would be reminders sent to the address of the property. Many would be sent and it would accumulate.

Well, if they do select your particular unit for enforcement - most likely in years to come - they can get an order to sita (seize) any movable property found therein and put it up for public auction, and the proceeds from same would be used to pay the due payment plus costs. Any excess sum would be paid to you after all deductions have been made.

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post Jan 4 2012, 12:59 AM

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QUOTE(it.fusion @ Jan 3 2012, 03:44 PM)
Hi Dario,

I am purchasing used 150K appt.. and i totaly newbie to on all purchase process between Vendor / Owner / S&P Lawyer / Bank Lawyer..

What shall i expect in S&P ?  - and what shall i highlite to the lawyer that is purchaser rights..etc

Please do advice the whole process which may help me on purchasing the unit. thanks smile.gif
*
Appoint a good lawyer as it is his job to highlight to you your rights as a purchaser, not the other way round. The lawyer would prepare the SPA on your behalf. All you need to do at this moment is to get all the relevant documents for him, or ask the agent to do it for you - the letter of offer to purchase, copy of ICs of vendor and yourself, copy of principal SPA, assessment and quit rent receipts, vendor's loan particulars, copy of title (if any).

Get the ball rolling first and if you have a specific answer, do come back and ask.

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post Jan 4 2012, 01:06 AM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Jan 3 2012, 09:41 PM)
Then how will my lawyer know that the buyer has actually submitted it ? Isn't it mandatory to submit ?

The buyer can just lie to the lawyer that he has submitted but actually has not. What are the consequences for the buyer ?
*
Then just give a photocopy of the acknowledgement to the lawyer.

If you elect to do it on your own, the lawyer will prepare a disclaimer whereby you agree to take full responsibility of submission of the CKHT forms and all consequences arising therefrom. After that, the lawyer has no business as to whether you submit it or not. It's not part of his professional duties anymore.


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post Jan 4 2012, 01:17 AM

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QUOTE(littlegirlmsia @ Jan 3 2012, 11:26 PM)
Thank you for your advice. You are right, it is a long road. I actually had the phobia to use the toilet, even after i used Dettol, Bleach, and acid to wash my toilet, i didn't dare to use the toilet until 4 days ago. And guess what? Today, when i came back, i saw the same problem again, and this time the human waste is even more that the last time. And it reached the door. I have contacted the Developer and the person in charge said all i could do is to wait for the plumber to come tmr. And i have to take leave to do that. And as i am writing now, the waste is still flooding my bathroom and i am so worried that it will flow out, and spoil my timber flooring and my expensive new built in wardrobe. It is worrying me. This is really menatlly torturing.

I called the realtor who works in the Real Estate Agency that exclusive agency that sells this condo during the construction period. He told me that after the handover of the keys, he got to know that this developer used cheap materials to cut costs. So, intead of two different piping for shower drain and sewage darin, they combine into one big pipe, that's why the human waste overflow from the shower drain.

Dario, plase advise me what else i can do? I do not want to face the same problem again, even after they "fixed" it tmr.

sad.gif
*
Sorry to hear about your situation.

Perhaps you can take photographs of the current situation for record purposes. Hand in a copy of the photos to the developer and get it acknowledged.

If the damage extends to your flooring and wardrobe, then you have actual loss and you can sue them for negligence. But do take precautions like to block the gap at the bottom of the door to at least prevent it from seeping through. You can't just let it flow, and then later just claim for damages. You need to show that you had taken measures to prevent, or at least mitigate any damage.

Are you the only one facing this problem? Are there others? Gang up and try making some noise. Is there a JMB? Approach a committee member and raise the issue. See what comes out of it.

Apart from the above, I can't advise you any further than I did in my reply to you earlier.

icon_rolleyes.gif
YAK
post Jan 4 2012, 07:12 AM

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Hi Dario,

Want you advise on a situation i'm facing. I bought a house where the loan was drawndown and keys received. The house came with a tenant renting which I didn't want but because I can't just chase him out I verbally agreed to let him stay 3 month so that he can look for another house and he agreed to take care of the house. The previous owner passed two months and utility deposit to me.

I received the keys on 2 Jan 12 and refunded one month rent to him with cheque as he did not pay Dec 2011 rent. Held utility the uitlity deposit until he produce the bills paid. The house was in bad condition, rubbish including broken furniture all over and very dirty. I check and found out he did not pay the electric and water for Oct - Nov 2011 amounting to around RM900.

I have stop the cheque payment, total deposit with me now is RM1,600. Is there any legal consequence in doing this? the deposit is to cover outstanding bills, clean up, rubbish removal and also damages in some part of the house. I don't have any written agreement with him.
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post Jan 4 2012, 08:52 AM

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QUOTE(YAK @ Jan 4 2012, 07:12 AM)
Hi Dario,

Want you advise on a situation i'm facing. I bought a house where the loan was drawndown and keys received. The house came with a tenant renting which I didn't want but because I can't just chase him out I verbally agreed to let him stay 3 month so that he can look for another house and he agreed to take care of the house. The previous owner passed two months and utility deposit to me.

I received the keys on 2 Jan 12 and refunded one month rent to him with cheque as he did not pay Dec 2011 rent. Held utility the uitlity deposit until he produce the bills paid. The house was in bad condition, rubbish including broken furniture all over and very dirty. I check and found out he did not pay the electric and water for Oct - Nov 2011 amounting to around RM900.

I have stop the cheque payment, total deposit with me now is RM1,600. Is there any legal consequence in doing this? the deposit is to cover outstanding bills, clean up, rubbish removal and also damages in some part of the house. I don't have any written agreement with him.
*
It's quite clear that the purchase comes with an existing tenancy over the property, which you have accepted and agreed to continue to subsist through your conduct in accepting the deposits. So you now step into the shoes of the vendor as the landlord. Is there a tenancy agreement entered into between the vendor and tenant prior to this?

So, it doesn't really matter if you have an agreement with him.

Everything is verbal or through conduct - that's why it becomes messy.

By right you ought to have asked the vendor to give him notice of default of payment and terminated the tenancy with one month's notice back in December when he defaulted in payment of rental.

Now, you have not terminated the tenancy in writing, but through the conduct of both parties. it does appear that the tenancy has been determined through agreement - you have refunded to him one month's rent and he has accepted it (cheque for that cleared?)

So one good thing is that he can't later claim that you had unlawfully terminated the tenancy and/or unlawfully evicted him.

You might want to put something in writing now to state:

1) Another one month's deposit is to set-off rental for Dec 2011; and
2) Cheque No___________ has been stopped as you had, on xxx date, inspected the premises and discovered the following defects and damage to the property and/or the premises which warrants the following repairs:

* list down all repairs to be made and estimated costs.

Also state and list down unpaid bills, with the bills annexed to it.

At the bottom, inform him that the cheque for payment was stopped as the monies would be used to make good the said repairs and settle the outstanding bills.

[Is the sum of RM1600.00 enough to cover everything? If not enough, you need to put in another clause which states that you have the right to initiate legal proceedings against the tenant in the event the deposits held is not sufficient for above matters]

Hand it over to the tenant and get it acknowledged by the tenant on every page.

Then you proceed to do the necessary - if got excess, refund it to him.

icon_rolleyes.gif



Mikeshashimi
post Jan 4 2012, 10:03 AM

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Solved.

This post has been edited by Mikeshashimi: Jan 4 2012, 11:11 AM
YAK
post Jan 4 2012, 10:50 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 4 2012, 08:52 AM)
It's quite clear that the purchase comes with an existing tenancy over the property, which you have accepted and agreed to continue to subsist through your conduct in accepting the deposits. So you now step into the shoes of the vendor as the landlord. Is there a tenancy agreement entered into between the vendor and tenant prior to this?

So, it doesn't really matter if you have an agreement with him.

Everything is verbal or through conduct - that's why it becomes messy.

By right you ought to have asked the vendor to give him notice of default of payment and terminated the tenancy with one month's notice back in December when he defaulted in payment of rental.

Now, you have not terminated the tenancy in writing, but through the conduct of both parties. it does appear that the tenancy has been determined through agreement - you have refunded to him one month's rent and he has accepted it (cheque for that cleared?)

So one good thing is that he can't later claim that you had unlawfully terminated the tenancy and/or unlawfully evicted him.

You might want to put something in writing now to state:

1) Another one month's deposit is to set-off rental for Dec 2011; and
2) Cheque No___________ has been stopped as you had, on xxx date, inspected the premises and discovered the following defects and damage to the property and/or the premises which warrants the following repairs:

* list down all repairs to be made and estimated costs.

Also state and list down unpaid bills, with the bills annexed to it.

At the bottom, inform him that the cheque for payment was stopped as the monies would be used to make good the said repairs and settle the outstanding bills.

[Is the sum of RM1600.00 enough to cover everything? If not enough, you need to put in another clause which states that you have the right to initiate legal proceedings against the tenant in the event the deposits held is not sufficient for above matters]

Hand it over to the tenant and get it acknowledged by the tenant on every page.

Then you proceed to do the necessary - if got excess, refund it to him.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thank you for the valuable advise. I have earlier asked him to acknowledge end of tenancy with the refund of one month rent which I subsequently cancel. In the acknowledgement it is also mention this is pending checking of outstanding bills.

One question now can I send an SMS notice to him on the cancellation of cheque because of outstanding bills and damages caused? Or if not through register mail?


This post has been edited by YAK: Jan 4 2012, 10:56 AM
it.fusion
post Jan 4 2012, 11:39 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 4 2012, 12:59 AM)
Appoint a good lawyer as it is his job to highlight to you your rights as a purchaser, not the other way round. The lawyer would prepare the SPA on your behalf. All you need to do at this moment is to get all the relevant documents for him, or ask the agent to do it for you - the letter of offer to purchase, copy of ICs of vendor and yourself, copy of principal SPA, assessment and quit rent receipts, vendor's loan particulars, copy of title (if any).

Get the ball rolling first and if you have a specific answer, do come back and ask.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
thanks for the awesome guide.. i had provided relevant doco.. IC... to agent and agent told that he will submit the documents to lawyer and the S&P laywer will call me regarding this.... thanks bro smile.gif
littlegirlmsia
post Jan 4 2012, 02:58 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 4 2012, 01:17 AM)
Sorry to hear about your situation.

Perhaps you can take photographs of the current situation for record purposes. Hand in a copy of the photos to the developer and get it acknowledged.

If the damage extends to your flooring and wardrobe, then you have actual loss and you can sue them for negligence. But do take precautions like to block the gap at the bottom of the door to at least prevent it from seeping through. You can't just let it flow, and then later just claim for damages. You need to show that you had taken measures to prevent, or at least mitigate any damage.

Are you the only one facing this problem? Are there others? Gang up and try making some noise. Is there a JMB? Approach a committee member and raise the issue. See what comes out of it.

Apart from the above, I can't advise you any further than I did in my reply to you earlier.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thanks Dario, I have emailed to the directors of the developer. The pics and video and the incidents. I also proved that I used things to prevent the flow from seeping through the door gap.

The other units have water leakage problems but not the same problem. We don't have JMD but forming it soon this month.

Thank you.
manemaren
post Jan 4 2012, 05:55 PM

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Hi,

I am selling my house. Just wonder who pays for the Sale n Purchase Agreement?

Any idea ?

Thanks
TSdariofoo
post Jan 4 2012, 11:06 PM

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QUOTE(YAK @ Jan 4 2012, 10:50 AM)
Thank you for the valuable advise. I have earlier asked him to acknowledge end of tenancy with the refund of one month rent which I subsequently cancel. In the acknowledgement it is also mention this is pending checking of outstanding bills.

One question now can I send an SMS notice to him on the cancellation of cheque because of outstanding bills and damages caused? Or if not through register mail?
*
He has moved out? If you can still meet him might as well go by hand. Or perhaps courier. Registered mail is not mandatory, and it is not the speediest method. You wait ages to get the AR card back.
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post Jan 4 2012, 11:07 PM

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QUOTE(manemaren @ Jan 4 2012, 05:55 PM)
Hi,

I am selling my house. Just wonder who pays for the Sale n Purchase Agreement?

Any idea ?

Thanks
*
You mean stamping of the SPA? Or do you mean legal fees?

Stamping is paid by purchaser. Each party bears own legal fees.

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YAK
post Jan 5 2012, 12:17 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 4 2012, 11:06 PM)
He has moved out? If you can still meet him might as well go by hand. Or perhaps courier. Registered mail is not mandatory, and it is not the speediest method. You wait ages to get the AR card back.
*
Yes he has moved out and chances of meeting him are slim. I will go by the courier route. MAny thanks for the advise, the advise you are providing here for free, helping people is really something not many would do. God bless you and all the best to you.
SUSjalsrix
post Jan 5 2012, 12:06 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 2 2012, 10:54 PM)
You can download it from LHDN website.

Yes, they accept printed forms.

You don't need to pass to your lawyer anything. Submission of CKHT forms has nothing to do with MOT.
*
I can't find it in the website,.

Can u please paste the link here ?
TSdariofoo
post Jan 5 2012, 01:22 PM

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QUOTE(YAK @ Jan 5 2012, 12:17 AM)
Yes he has moved out and chances of meeting him are slim. I will go by the courier route. MAny thanks for the advise, the advise you are providing here for free, helping people is really something not many would do. God bless you and all the best to you.
*
Make sure you get the acknowledgement slip from the courier later.

After that when you make the necessary deductions and payments, record it in writing and send it to him (with photocopy of all receipts included). This is to protect yourself later, in the event he gets some idea to hit back at you. Spend a bit now, but avoid more headache later. nod.gif

Good luck icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jan 5 2012, 01:26 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Jan 5 2012, 12:06 PM)
I can't find it in the website,.

Can u please paste the link here ?
*
Here's another link where you can get all the forms:

http://www.selangorbar.org/content_dtl.php?id=14886

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manemaren
post Jan 5 2012, 01:42 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 4 2012, 11:07 PM)
You mean stamping of the SPA? Or do you mean legal fees?

Stamping is paid by purchaser. Each party bears own legal fees.

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*
Legal fees for the SPA. So the lawyer who gets the SPA ready get payment from both party?

SUSjalsrix
post Jan 5 2012, 05:26 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 5 2012, 01:26 PM)
Here's another link where you can get all the forms:

http://www.selangorbar.org/content_dtl.php?id=14886

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For buyer portion, is it CKHT 2A ?
SUSbenny_s
post Jan 5 2012, 05:34 PM

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Hi

Recently i just bought 1 apartment unit and signed s&p last 2 week (22/12/11), the lawyer's firm staff told me that i entitle to get 50% on S&P even though i'm holding 1 house that bought on 2009.

Just want to clarify the 50% S&p discount is it can apply for my case?

Thanks.

TSdariofoo
post Jan 6 2012, 02:34 PM

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QUOTE(manemaren @ Jan 5 2012, 01:42 PM)
Legal fees for the SPA. So the lawyer who gets the SPA ready get payment from both party?
*
Purchaser has to pay full scaled legal fees to his lawyer as the purchaser would definitely need to appoint his own lawyer.

As for seller, 2 options:

1) Appoint another lawyer to act on seller's behalf - seller has to pay full scaled legal fees to the lawyer. Lawyer would vet the draft SPA prepared by the purchaser's lawyer and would also follow up with redemption of seller's loan, preparation of discharge of charge/deed of RnR, application for consent (if applicable) and filing of CKHT Forms.

2) Do not appoint own lawyer but authorise purchaser's lawyer to assist with redemption of seller's loan, preparation of discharge of charge/deed of RnR, application for consent (if applicable) and filing of CKHT Forms. Seller does not pay full scaled fees but is fixed on the assistance rendered by the purchaser's lawyer, eg applic for consent is RM300, discharge of charge is RM300, plus some disbursements would be payable too.

For option 2, seller is deemed to be unrepresented. You need to check the draft SPA yourself. The purchaser's lawyer does not have the duty to explain to you the contents nor act in your best interest. If there is a delay on your part, for example delay in your bank to issue the redemption statement , the completion date would be extended in favour of the purchaser.
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post Jan 6 2012, 02:34 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Jan 5 2012, 05:26 PM)
For buyer portion, is it CKHT 2A ?
*
Yes nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jan 6 2012, 02:36 PM

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QUOTE(benny_s @ Jan 5 2012, 05:34 PM)
Hi

Recently i just bought 1 apartment unit and signed s&p last 2 week (22/12/11), the lawyer's firm staff told me that i entitle to get 50% on S&P even though i'm holding 1 house that bought on 2009.

Just want to clarify the 50% S&p discount is it can apply for my case?

Thanks.
*
Are you referring to the 50% rebate on stamp duty upon instrument of transfer for properties below RM350,000.00? If so, you do not qualify as the current purchase is not your first house purchase.
napoli26
post Jan 6 2012, 03:05 PM

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1st time purchase for >rm350k can get 50% discount for stamp duty?
Yoru No Hikari
post Jan 6 2012, 03:59 PM

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if we buy new house we should paid legal fees for bank's lawyer too?
SUSbenny_s
post Jan 6 2012, 06:34 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 6 2012, 04:06 AM)
Are you referring to the 50% rebate on stamp duty upon instrument of transfer for properties below RM350,000.00? If so, you do not qualify as the current purchase is not your first house purchase.
*
Yup, Its 50% rebate on stamp duty. But i already paid for lawyer fees which already minus 50% on stamp duty.

So, what should i do for next?

Thx for your kind advise.


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post Jan 6 2012, 09:34 PM

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QUOTE(napoli26 @ Jan 6 2012, 03:05 PM)
1st time purchase for >rm350k can get 50% discount for stamp duty?
*
Not more than RM350K. There are guidelines.

Check out this topic for more info:

http://forum.lowyat.net/index.php?showtopic=1748580&hl=

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TSdariofoo
post Jan 6 2012, 09:35 PM

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QUOTE(Yoru No Hikari @ Jan 6 2012, 03:59 PM)
if we buy new house we should paid legal fees for bank's lawyer too?
*
New house as in purchase from developer?

Well, it depends if the legal fees for the bank's lawyer is included in the package or otherwise. Some developers just absorb the legal fees for SPA, but not for loan. Some absorb both. So do check with the developer.

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TSdariofoo
post Jan 6 2012, 09:39 PM

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QUOTE(benny_s @ Jan 6 2012, 06:34 PM)
Yup, Its 50% rebate on stamp duty. But i already paid for lawyer fees which already minus 50% on stamp duty.

So, what should i do for next?

Thx for your kind advise.
*
If you have purchased another residential property you do not qualify for the rebate. I'm sure you would have affirmed a Statutory Declaration to say that you fall within the guidelines as stipulated by LHDN. If you haven't you would be called up soon to do so, as the SD is required when applying for the rebate.

For the guidelines, you can refer to the following link:

http://forum.lowyat.net/index.php?showtopic=1748580&hl=

Do remember that affirming a false SD is a criminal offence. So do check with the lawyer (not with the clerk or staff) as to whether you qualify or otherwise.

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flabbergasted
post Jan 7 2012, 01:30 AM

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Hi,

I'm in a little bit of conundrum. I'm a first time house buyer, so I don't have a lot of experience. Would appreciate it if someone could advise me.

The seller of the sub sale property that I am buying is still transferring the title to his name (the co owner passed away). I've already been waiting for about 3 months for this. The thing is I've already signed the SNP (pending the title name change) and paid the 10% about a month or two ago. Since it is taking too long, I'm starting to have doubts about the seller. Can I back out of this deal now without losing anything? I really want to buy the property, but it is taking too long. Or is there any way to force the seller to hasten the process? Since he already has the 10%, it would benefit him more to delay the process.

Please advise.
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post Jan 7 2012, 11:52 PM

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QUOTE(flabbergasted @ Jan 7 2012, 01:30 AM)
Hi,

I'm in a little bit of conundrum. I'm a first time house buyer, so I don't have a lot of experience. Would appreciate it if someone could advise me.

The seller of the sub sale property that I am buying is still transferring the title to his name (the co owner passed away). I've already been waiting for about 3 months for this. The thing is I've already signed the SNP (pending the title name change) and paid the 10% about a month or two ago. Since it is taking too long, I'm starting to have doubts about the seller. Can I back out of this deal now without losing anything? I really want to buy the property, but it is taking too long. Or is there any way to force the seller to hasten the process? Since he already has the 10%, it would benefit him more to delay the process.

Please advise.
*
You need to abide by the terms of the SPA which both parties have signed. Look at the time given to the vendor to comply with the transfer of ownership of the other half-share. 6 months? 9? Until then, you can't fault him at all. You ought to be aware when you're buying this particular property that it is not the run-of-the-mill transaction and that it may be delayed. So, do be patient.

With regard to your statement that the owner has 10% and thus, it would benefit him more to delay the process - that is an incorrect statement. The longer the delay, the more detrimental it is to the vendor as the price of the property may appreciate, and he can't do anything about it. Add in inflation and you'll see that the vendor has no reason to delay things. He would definitely want to use the balance 90% for other matters as well.

If you're confused about the whole process then it's time to speak your lawyer directly and find out the latest status and also the flow of proceedings. Some enlightenment would be useful, as you're a first time buyer. Good luck.

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flabbergasted
post Jan 8 2012, 01:12 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 7 2012, 11:52 PM)
You need to abide by the terms of the SPA which both parties have signed. Look at the time given to the vendor to comply with the transfer of ownership of the other half-share. 6 months? 9? Until then, you can't fault him at all. You ought to be aware when you're buying this particular property that it is not the run-of-the-mill transaction and that it may be delayed.  So, do be patient.

With regard to your statement that the owner has 10% and thus, it would benefit him more to delay the process - that is an incorrect statement. The longer the delay, the more detrimental it is to the vendor as the price of the property may appreciate, and he can't do anything about it. Add in inflation and you'll see that the vendor has no reason to delay things. He would definitely want to use the balance 90% for other matters as well.

If you're confused about the whole process then it's time to speak your lawyer directly and find out the latest status and also the flow of proceedings. Some enlightenment would be useful, as you're a first time buyer. Good luck.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Thanks dariofoo.

It seems like in the SNP, there is no stipulated time given to the vendor to transfer the ownership, this worries me. There is however a 6 months period for the vendor to transfer the title to my name, after he successfully transfer the title to his name. The property is a leasehold condo with strata title, do you know the maximum time it would normally take for someone to transfer a property to his name?

I've been speaking to my lawyer, but he seems to be not that well versed with these things. So that is why I'm asking here. Thanks.
TSdariofoo
post Jan 8 2012, 04:37 PM

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QUOTE(flabbergasted @ Jan 8 2012, 01:12 AM)
Thanks dariofoo.

It seems like in the SNP, there is no stipulated time given to the vendor to transfer the ownership, this worries me. There is however a 6 months period for the vendor to transfer the title to my name, after he successfully transfer the title to his name. The property is a leasehold condo with strata title, do you know the maximum time it would normally take for someone to transfer a property to his name?

I've been speaking to my lawyer, but he seems to be not that well versed with these things. So that is why I'm asking here. Thanks.
*
Sorry mate I can't understand the time period you're speaking of. Your lawyer does not seem to be well-versed in these things? Are you sure? How can you come to such conclusion? Your lawyer is the one who prepare the SPA for you so surely he must be well-appraised of the implications of the terms and conditions of the SPA..

If you want me to advise you further on the issue of length of time for vendor to complete the transfer, please scan a copy of the relevant pages of the SPA - those clauses which refer to transfer of ownership/completion date and other such terms - and put it here. If any sensitive information, do blank it out.

Cheers. icon_rolleyes.gif


it.fusion
post Jan 9 2012, 08:17 PM

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edited

This post has been edited by it.fusion: Jan 10 2012, 09:52 AM
TSdariofoo
post Jan 10 2012, 01:50 AM

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This post has been edited by dariofoo: Jan 11 2012, 06:58 PM
Skydrop
post Jan 10 2012, 01:49 PM

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Hi dariofoo
I am wondering if you buy a property at 240K, renovated 50K and dispose it off at 380K within 5 years, how to calculate tax? Thanks
keongzai79
post Jan 10 2012, 04:59 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Dec 22 2011, 11:33 AM)
The lawyer is referring to revocation of Power of Attorney (revoke PA is the common term used). Unfortunately, Shah Alam Court is very very slow when it comes to revocation of PA. If KL Court it can be done on the spot. For Shah Alam easily have to wait 2 weeks at the earliest and as for latest, there is no limit. Depends on the efficiency of the staff who is in charge. Your lawyer has to keep following up. Furthermore, as it is end of the year and holiday season, it is usual for things at Govt offices to progress slower than usual.  sad.gif

For leasehold with consent, it is usual for SPAs to take 6-9 months to complete.

Hope yours can be completed soon.  icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Dario,

I had received the revoke PA from the Shah Alam high Court and my S&P lawyer is asking for some documents from me to prepare for the final disbursement to me from the buyer's bank. But, i have few question to check with you:

1) Buyer banker requested to have master quit rent for Y2012 and i had check with the condo managment, sad to say that they have not make the payment yet. So, can i skip this document?

2) I need the stamped DOA for the EPF withdrawal purpose. Can i have it after i obtained the revoke PA or i shall wait for the final disbursement from the buyer bank before my S&P lawyer can get the stamped copy for me?

Thanks!
chee yat
post Jan 10 2012, 07:16 PM

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Nice day Mr Dario,


I had facing some problem over here whereby the lawyer tell me i might have to wait the property for 1.5 ~ 2 yrs js can get it...

The situation is like this, me & owner had sign the S&P on Oct 2011. At that time, lawyer told us that we might need to wait the longest 6 months to get the name finish transfer because right now the developer is applying strata title from government.

But js now the lawyer phone me again and saying that, the developer doesn't want to directly transfer the name from developer to my name. Instead they wan to transfer to the owner name, then the owner transfer back to me. She say gonna take maybe 2 yrs for all these to be done. But after that she told me again, if you wan to be fast. You may pay money to government ask them directly transfer name to the owner, so can speed up the process and the fee is around Rm500 - Rm1000.

So is there any possibility for this to be happened? But after that she told me again, although pay d money already still need to wait around 1 year. Is it take so long to transfer name? She keep on mention because no yet get 'concern' from government...


Please i really need your advice here, i don't know where to turn up to..
Seremban_2
post Jan 11 2012, 09:40 AM

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QUOTE(chee yat @ Jan 10 2012, 07:16 PM)
But after that she told me again, if you wan to be fast. You may pay money to government ask them directly transfer name to the owner, so can speed up the process and the fee is around Rm500 - Rm1000.

*
The above I quote I want to know and tell more, I also want to know more and keep posting here. I also need help. sad.gif

Please ask the lawyer what is the RM500 - RM1000 for? Undertable? shocking.gif

As far as I know the developer don't allow direct transfer and leasehold property and in middle of process getting strata title out from land office.

Meaning that the purchaser which is now seller have to get consent to transfer & charge to complete it's perfection of transfer and charge. This alone will take time to complete due to 3rd party (land office) slow in getting it process.

After the seller complete it's transfer & charge from developer to the purchaser (seller), then only will be new purcharse which mean you and another round of lengthy time to complete transfer from seller to you.


Added on January 11, 2012, 9:46 am
QUOTE(chee yat @ Jan 10 2012, 07:16 PM)
She keep on mention because no yet get 'concern' from government...
Please i really need your advice here, i don't know where to turn up to..
*
I think she mean that the government is not concern with your purchase of property and take their own sweat time with Tak apa attitude.

This post has been edited by Seremban_2: Jan 11 2012, 09:46 AM
TSdariofoo
post Jan 11 2012, 01:34 PM

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QUOTE(Skydrop @ Jan 10 2012, 01:49 PM)
Hi dariofoo
I am wondering if you buy a property at 240K, renovated 50K and dispose it off at 380K within 5 years, how to calculate tax?  Thanks
*
No other expenses? Legal fees, agent fees also can be included as expenses.

RM380K - 240K - 50K - any further deductions = nett gain

Nett gain x 5% = CKHT/RPGT

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TSdariofoo
post Jan 11 2012, 01:37 PM

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QUOTE(keongzai79 @ Jan 10 2012, 04:59 PM)
Dario,

I had received the revoke PA from the Shah Alam high Court and my S&P lawyer is asking for some documents from me to prepare for the final disbursement to me from the buyer's bank. But, i have few question to check with you:

1) Buyer banker requested to have master quit rent for Y2012 and i had check with the condo managment, sad to say that they have not make the payment yet. So, can i skip this document?

2) I need the stamped DOA for the EPF withdrawal purpose. Can i have it after i obtained the revoke PA or i shall wait for the final disbursement from the buyer bank before my S&P lawyer can get the stamped copy for me?

Thanks!
*
1) This is sticky as it is January and surely the request for payment by land office has not been issued yet but it does appear to be outstanding as we are already in 2012. Your lawyer has to check with the bank if they can waive the requirement for it to be produced, subject perhaps to a letter of undertaking by the developer to settle the quit rent for 2012 as and when same is due for payment. Perhaps a verbal explanation by the lawyer would suffice. Depends on the bank's discretion. If verbal don't cut it, a letter ought to be ok.

2) You can have it once it is stamped by your lawyer. No need to wait until final disbursement of loan. With proof of submission of DOA for adjudication of stamp duty, it would be sufficient to advise for drawdown.

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TSdariofoo
post Jan 11 2012, 01:41 PM

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QUOTE(chee yat @ Jan 10 2012, 07:16 PM)
Nice day Mr Dario,
I had facing some problem over here whereby the lawyer tell me i might have to wait the property for 1.5 ~ 2 yrs js can get it...

The situation is like this, me & owner had sign the S&P on Oct 2011. At that time, lawyer told us that we might need to wait the longest 6 months to get the name finish transfer because right now the developer is applying strata title from government.

But js now the lawyer phone me again and saying that, the developer doesn't want to directly transfer the name from developer to my name. Instead they wan to transfer to the owner name, then the owner transfer back to me. She say gonna take maybe 2 yrs for all these to be done. But after that she told me again, if you wan to be fast. You may pay money to government ask them directly transfer name to the owner, so can speed up the process and the fee is around Rm500 - Rm1000.

So is there any possibility for this to be happened? But after that she told me again, although pay d money already still need to wait around 1 year. Is it take so long to transfer name? She keep on mention because no yet get 'concern' from government...
Please i really need your advice here, i don't know where to turn up to..
*
Government/land office cannot transfer name directly to owner. Master title is in the name of the developer and strata title would be in the name of the owner/vendor. Looks like the developer insists on a back-to-back transfer and not direct. That seems to be the trend these days.

For the money which the lawyer is asking - tell her to put it in black and white and write to you, explaining the actual cost of the "procedure". If it is legal and can be done, the letter ought to explain it. If she refuses, then you can assume that it is for an illegal cause. Do be cautious.

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TSdariofoo
post Jan 11 2012, 01:42 PM

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QUOTE(Seremban_2 @ Jan 11 2012, 09:40 AM)
I think she mean that the government is not concern with your purchase of property and take their own sweat time with Tak apa attitude.
*
I think our friend meant "consent" and not "concern". hmm.gif

Thanks for your concern biggrin.gif
keongzai79
post Jan 11 2012, 02:25 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 11 2012, 01:37 PM)
1) This is sticky as it is January and surely the request for payment by land office has not been issued yet but it does appear to be outstanding as we are already in 2012. Your lawyer has to check with the bank if they can waive the requirement for it to be produced, subject perhaps to a letter of undertaking by the developer to settle the quit rent for 2012 as and when same is due for payment. Perhaps a verbal explanation by the lawyer would suffice. Depends on the bank's discretion. If verbal don't cut it, a letter ought to be ok.

2) You can have it once it is stamped  by your lawyer. No need to wait until final disbursement of loan. With proof of submission of DOA for adjudication of stamp duty, it would be sufficient to advise for drawdown.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Dario,

Thanks a lot for the quick reply. As for item 2), the stamped DOA, my S&P lawyer said that they need 1 month to stamp it as they are waiting for the notice from Stamp office. Do i need to wait that long just for the stamping of the DOA? I really need the stamped DOA for EPF widthdrawal for my 2nd house. Thanks!
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post Jan 11 2012, 05:06 PM

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dariofoo

If I have asked my lawyer to prepare the S&P but haven't signed it or pay any deposit yet.

Do I need to pay my lawyer anything if I decided to cancel to buy the house ?

Because my lawyer spend some time preparing it, what do I need to pay ?
TSdariofoo
post Jan 11 2012, 06:54 PM

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QUOTE(keongzai79 @ Jan 11 2012, 02:25 PM)
Dario,

Thanks a lot for the quick reply. As for item 2), the stamped DOA, my S&P lawyer said that they need 1 month to stamp it as they are waiting for the notice from Stamp office. Do i need to wait that long just for the stamping of the DOA? I really need the stamped DOA for EPF widthdrawal for my 2nd house. Thanks!
*
It depends on the LHDN branch in question who is processing the submission. If all is ok you can get it within a week at the best. Most of the time it takes 2-3 weeks. 1 month is a safe figure. Sometimes if there is an error and document gets rejected OR if the staff in charge is not "aggressive" enough then it can drag longer than 1 month also.
TSdariofoo
post Jan 11 2012, 07:04 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Jan 11 2012, 05:06 PM)
dariofoo

If I have asked my lawyer to prepare the S&P but haven't signed it or pay any deposit yet.

Do I need to pay my lawyer anything if I decided to cancel to buy the house ?

Because my lawyer spend some time preparing it, what do I need to pay ?
*
Normally if it is aborted half-way after it has been executed, half of fees would be paid (or refunded back, if paid in full). That is customary practice.

In this case, you need to discuss with the lawyer. If it is your usual lawyer and you're going to use him again in the near future for another property, I'm sure he would not make a big deal out of it.

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SUSleechers
post Jan 11 2012, 08:10 PM

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Dear dario, congrats on your new elite status, you deserve it.

As u might aware, i am in the middle of purchasing an apartment and it comes to almost the end, when the bank release first payment and will be follow by second/final release later on. I am relief that the whole process are actually quite fast and within timeframe given

Just one quick question, when i asked my lawyer about house key, she told me that i need to refund sinking fund back to vendor (previous owner). Is this normal and the right practice? Please advice. Thanks
SUSjalsrix
post Jan 11 2012, 09:22 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 11 2012, 07:04 PM)
Normally if it is aborted half-way after it has been executed, half of fees would be paid (or refunded back, if paid in full). That is customary practice.

In this case, you need to discuss with the lawyer. If it is your usual lawyer and you're going to use him again in the near future for another property, I'm sure he would not make a big deal out of it.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
What do you mean 'half of fees' ? Do you mean the lawyer S&P fees ?

But the S&P isn't signed by any party yet.

He has prepared draft S&P and vendor is looking at the draft.
ahnaz
post Jan 11 2012, 09:59 PM

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hi dario..need your advice here..
I am now in the middle of buying a condo from an agent. This is a subsale property.
The owner has appointed him to sell the condo. I have paid the 3% booking to the agent and signed an agreement in front of the agent's lawyer. The agreement stating that the owner has agreed to sell the property at $310k etc etc.
The agent also stated that his lawyer will settle all S&P agreement matters. He also said it is his lawyer's duty also to ensure that the S&P shall be impartial (not favoring the owner or me).

My question would be:
1) do i need to appoint a lawyer on my behalf? what are the pros and cons if do appoint one and what if i dont?
2) in this case, who would pay the legal fees for this lawyer? owner or me or share?
3) is this lawyer acting for more than 1 party? this is illegal right?
4) for loan agreement, there will be another lawyer appointed by the bank right? who will pay for their legal fee?

Help me...this legal things are very confusinggg rclxub.gif rclxub.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jan 11 2012, 10:49 PM

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QUOTE(leechers @ Jan 11 2012, 08:10 PM)
Dear dario, congrats on your new elite status, you deserve it.

As u might aware, i am in the middle of purchasing an apartment and it comes to almost the end, when the bank release first payment and will be follow by second/final release later on. I am relief that the whole process are actually quite fast and within timeframe given

Just one quick question, when i asked my lawyer about house key, she told me that i need to refund sinking fund back to vendor (previous owner). Is this normal and the right practice? Please advice. Thanks
*
cheers.gif

I don't she meant full refund. The normal scenario would be that all outgoings - maintenance, quit rent (if any), assessment, sinking fund, fire insurance, indah water etc would be pro-rated between you and the vendor.

Example: Maintenance for April 2012 is RM150. SPA completed on 15th. So, you would need to pay maintenance from 16th-30th April (15 days). As such, you would need to refund half of maintenance for April to the vendor (15 out of 30 days). So you would need to pay RM75.

Same goes for all utilities. If for full year - like quit rent, then you pro-rate on daily basis for the whole year. Your lawyer ought to do the necessary calculation for you.

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TSdariofoo
post Jan 11 2012, 10:54 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Jan 11 2012, 09:22 PM)
What do you mean 'half of fees' ? Do you mean the lawyer S&P fees ?

But the S&P isn't signed by any party yet.

He has prepared draft S&P and vendor is looking at the draft.
*
Half of scaled fees. If normal scaled fees is RM2000, you pay RM1000.


TSdariofoo
post Jan 11 2012, 11:07 PM

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QUOTE(ahnaz @ Jan 11 2012, 09:59 PM)
hi dario..need your advice here..
I am now in the middle of buying a condo from an agent. This is a subsale property.
The owner has appointed him to sell the condo. I have paid the 3% booking to the agent and signed an agreement in front of the agent's lawyer. The agreement stating that the owner has agreed to sell the property at $310k etc etc.
The agent also stated that his lawyer will settle all S&P agreement matters. He also said it is his lawyer's duty also to ensure that the S&P shall be impartial (not favoring the owner or me).

My question would be:
1) do i need to appoint a lawyer on my behalf? what are the pros and cons if do appoint one and what if i dont?
2) in this case, who would pay the legal fees for this lawyer? owner or me or share?
3) is this lawyer acting for more than 1 party? this is illegal right?
4) for loan agreement, there will be another lawyer appointed by the bank right? who will pay for their legal fee?

Help me...this legal things are very confusinggg  rclxub.gif  rclxub.gif
*
1) Purchaser always appoint a lawyer to act on his behalf. No two ways about it. There's no such thing as "agent's lawyer" in SPA transactions. It's either vendor's lawyer or purchaser's lawyer. There's also no lawyer who sits in the middle and "ensures that the SPA shall be impartial". That is all hogwash. Ultimately, the SPA will have terms which side one party, whether a bit or a lot. It depends on how it is drafted and how it is ultimately approved and finalised.

2) Am sure that at the end of the day, you would be paying full fees for this lawyer. Vendor would not need to pay full fees and he needs to pay minimal fees only as the lawyer is supposed to be acting for you [read: protect your best interests]. So if the agent pushes this lawyer to you and at the same time says that the lawyer will prepare an impartial SPA, then it's time to get an independent lawyer of your own choice - ask friends and family for recommendations.

3) Yes it is a conflict of interest for a lawyer to purportedly act for two parties in the SPA. He can't act for both parties. He can act for purchaser and be authorised by the vendor to attend to the discharge of charge/deed of RnR and filing of CKHT forms [or to apply for consent, if applicable]. That's all. At the end of the day, your lawyer whom you are paying full scaled fees has to act for you.

4) If your SPA lawyer is on the bank's panel, you can insist that he does the loan as well, in order to save time and costs (disbursements can be reduced). Who pays the fees? Here's the reality in M'sia - the lawyer acts on behalf of the bank, but you pay the fees.

To calculate legal fees - use the calculator in the first page. Fees are based on the purchase price or loan sum (when it comes to your loan documentation)

ahnaz
post Jan 11 2012, 11:11 PM

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wow...thanks very much dario for the info!! very helpful indeed!! thumbup.gif
SUSleechers
post Jan 12 2012, 01:28 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 11 2012, 10:49 PM)
cheers.gif

I don't she meant full refund. The normal scenario would be that all outgoings - maintenance, quit rent (if any), assessment, sinking fund, fire insurance, indah water etc would be pro-rated between you and the vendor.

Example: Maintenance for April 2012 is RM150. SPA completed on 15th. So, you would need to pay maintenance from 16th-30th April (15 days). As such, you would need to refund half of maintenance for April to the vendor (15 out of 30 days). So you would need to pay RM75.

Same goes for all utilities. If for full year - like quit rent, then you pro-rate on daily basis for the whole year. Your lawyer ought to do the necessary calculation for you.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Spa completed means all of the neccesary process completed until final payment? Or day of spa signed?

No offense to u dario, since i think you are a lawyer (correct me if iam wrong) but can i trust the calculation done by lawyer regarding amount that i need to refund back?
Twilight Prophet
post Jan 12 2012, 04:05 AM

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Hi Dario,

Need your advice here. I am in the middle of refinancing my apartment unit, which is still under Master Title.

A week ago, I signed the deed of assignment, power of attorney, facility agreement and those documents should now be on their way for stamping.

However, only today did I realise that my current loan lawyer made a mistake with the Master Title number on those documents (that I signed a week ago) . He got one number wrong (for example, it should be 123456 but instead it was 133456), on all the documents.

Please advise me on what to do and what are the possible consequences.

Will I have to pay extra $ to correct things?
Can the mistake even be fixed or will the bank simply cancel the agreement?
Will the disbursement of money be delayed and by how long?
Should I alert my loan officer (who is also in charge of the after sales service)?

Thank you in advance.




TSdariofoo
post Jan 12 2012, 08:47 AM

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QUOTE(leechers @ Jan 12 2012, 01:28 AM)
Spa completed means all of the neccesary process completed until final payment? Or day of spa signed?

No offense to u dario, since i think you are a lawyer (correct me if iam wrong) but can i trust the calculation done by lawyer regarding amount that i need to refund back?
*
Date of completion of SPA would mean the date the vendor's lawyers receive the cheque for payment of the balance purchase price. Normally, within 3 working days from that date, vacant possession has to be surrendered to you. However, for the purpose of calculation - the date of receipt of the cheque by the vendor's lawyers would be deemed as the cut-off date. As such, from that date, you are considered the owner of the property. As such, you start to pay for all outgoings from that day onwards.

You can always do your own calculation, just to double check. No issues with that. Just to be safe. nod.gif
keongzai79
post Jan 12 2012, 08:57 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 11 2012, 06:54 PM)
It depends on the LHDN branch in question who is processing the submission. If all is ok you can get it within a week at the best. Most of the time it takes 2-3 weeks. 1 month is a safe figure. Sometimes if there is an error and document gets rejected OR if the staff in charge is not "aggressive" enough then it can drag longer than 1 month also.
*
Dario,

Thanks a lot for the info. Cheers!!! biggrin.gif
SUSleechers
post Jan 12 2012, 09:17 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 12 2012, 08:47 AM)
Date of completion of SPA would mean the date the vendor's lawyers receive the cheque for payment of the balance purchase price. Normally, within 3 working days from that date, vacant possession has to be surrendered to you. However, for the purpose of calculation - the date of receipt of the cheque by the vendor's lawyers would be deemed as the cut-off date. As such, from that date, you are considered the owner of the property. As such, you start to pay for all outgoings from that day onwards.

You can always do your own calculation, just to double check. No issues with that. Just to be safe.  nod.gif
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Thank you very much dario, i understand now. You are truly a life saver
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post Jan 12 2012, 03:34 PM

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QUOTE(Twilight Prophet @ Jan 12 2012, 04:05 AM)
Hi Dario,

Need your advice here. I am in the middle of refinancing my apartment unit, which is still under Master Title.

A week ago, I  signed the deed of assignment, power of attorney, facility agreement and those documents should now be on their way for stamping.

However, only today did I realise that my current loan lawyer made a mistake with the Master Title number on those documents (that I signed a week ago) . He got one number wrong (for example, it should be 123456 but instead it was 133456), on all the documents.

Please advise me on what to do and what are the possible consequences.

Will I have to pay extra $ to correct things?
Can the mistake even be fixed or will the bank simply cancel the agreement?
Will the disbursement of money be delayed and by how long?
Should I alert my loan officer (who is also in charge of the after sales service)?

Thank you in advance.
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If you just executed it, it must be sent to the bank to be executed by the bank's attorney. So perhaps they would spot the mistake and send it back for the lawyer to amend first before they would execute it.

The delay would not be long - provided your lawyer quickly collects back the doc, make the amendments and send it back to the bank.

It depends on the bank as well - some banks are more flexible and can execute it first subject to the lawyer's undertaking to do the amendment upon collecting the docs. Some insist on seeing the amendment. It also depends on whether there are other mistakes. If there are a lot more, then the docs would be returned for amendments to be made, before the bank would execute it.

You don't need to pay anything at all. I don't think you should alert your loan officer at this stage. Unless there is a delay on the part of the lawyer to attend to the amendments.
Twilight Prophet
post Jan 12 2012, 03:56 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 12 2012, 03:34 PM)
If you just executed it, it must be sent to the bank to be executed by the bank's attorney. So perhaps they would spot the mistake and send it back for the lawyer to amend first before they would execute it.

The delay would not be long - provided your lawyer quickly collects back the doc, make the amendments and send it back to the bank.

It depends on the bank as well - some banks are more flexible and can execute it first subject to the lawyer's undertaking to do the amendment upon collecting the docs. Some insist on seeing the amendment. It also depends on whether there are other mistakes. If there are a lot more, then the docs would be returned for amendments to be made, before the bank would execute it.

You don't need to pay anything at all. I don't think you should alert your loan officer at this stage. Unless there is a delay on the part of the lawyer to attend to the amendments.
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Dario, thanks a lot for the advice. I send an e-mail to my lawyer pointing out the mistakes (so that there's a record) and he wrote back "Noted. Thank you" . I'll wait 2-3 weeks and see if he updates me further smile.gif
WeenC
post Jan 13 2012, 11:42 AM

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Dear Dario,

Hi, I'm planning to sell my property at 500k and buy another property at 250k. Can you please explained what are the hidden cost incurred for buying and selling properties? My property is more than 2 years but less than 5 years. No mortgage involved.Thank you.
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post Jan 13 2012, 09:09 PM

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QUOTE(WeenC @ Jan 13 2012, 11:42 AM)
Dear Dario,

Hi, I'm planning to sell my property at 500k and buy another property at 250k. Can you please explained what are the hidden cost incurred for buying and selling properties? My property is more than 2 years but less than 5 years. No mortgage involved.Thank you.
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What do you mean by hidden costs?
WeenC
post Jan 14 2012, 11:18 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 13 2012, 09:09 PM)
What do you mean by hidden costs?
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Sorry, didn't make myself clear. Meaning the legal fees, agent fees, SnP charges, stamp duty n misc fees other than the stated 500k n 250k properties. Do i need to pay 4 valuation report, imbursement fee n transfer of strata title, insurance if no bank is involved. Assuming that both parties using the same solicitor. Both properties r 20 years old building. I've tried to check online but the more I read abt others reply the more confused I get. To put it simply, other than the 500k I'll receive from the buyer n the 250k I have to pay to the seller, what other cost I have to bear for these 2 transactions? My parents recently bought a property at 488k n the legal fees is 17.5k. I have no way of knowing whether the fees is justified or not. Thanks again 4 being patience with me. I don know if I'm asking a silly question or not.
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post Jan 14 2012, 04:32 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 11 2012, 11:07 PM)
1) Purchaser always appoint a lawyer to act on his behalf. No two ways about it. There's no such thing as "agent's lawyer" in SPA transactions. It's either vendor's lawyer or purchaser's lawyer. There's also no lawyer who sits in the middle and "ensures that the SPA shall be impartial". That is all hogwash. Ultimately, the SPA will have terms which side one party, whether a bit or a lot. It depends on how it is drafted and how it is ultimately approved and finalised.

2) Am sure that at the end of the day, you would be paying full fees for this lawyer. Vendor would not need to pay full fees and he needs to pay minimal fees only as the lawyer is supposed to be acting for you [read: protect your best interests]. So if the agent pushes this lawyer to you and at the same time says that the lawyer will prepare an impartial SPA, then it's time to get an independent lawyer of your own choice - ask friends and family for recommendations.

3) Yes it is a conflict of interest for a lawyer to purportedly act for two parties in the SPA. He can't act for both parties. He can act for purchaser and be authorised by the vendor to attend to the discharge of charge/deed of RnR and filing of CKHT forms [or to apply for consent, if applicable]. That's all. At the end of the day, your lawyer whom you are paying full scaled fees has to act for you.

4) If your SPA lawyer is on the bank's panel, you can insist that he does the loan as well, in order to save time and costs (disbursements can be reduced). Who pays the fees? Here's the reality in M'sia - the lawyer acts on behalf of the bank, but you pay the fees.

To calculate legal fees - use the calculator in the first page. Fees are based on the purchase price or loan sum (when it comes to your loan documentation)
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dario,

i bold out your statement, is this something right and parallel with law? can we challenge this? since the loan act on behalf of the bank, why should we pay for the fee? what is your opinion on this?

TkPerak
post Jan 14 2012, 11:45 PM

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Hi Dario,

What is the use of Letter of Intent in property transaction? How secure is the LoI to the purchaser? What can purchaser does if seller refuse to continue the transaction?
it.fusion
post Jan 15 2012, 09:12 PM

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the appt has master title... is master title transfer are included by default in the S&P agreement or is it something separate ?

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post Jan 15 2012, 10:47 PM

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QUOTE(WeenC @ Jan 14 2012, 11:18 AM)
Sorry, didn't make myself clear. Meaning the legal fees, agent fees, SnP charges, stamp duty n misc fees other than the stated 500k n 250k properties. Do i need to pay 4 valuation report, imbursement fee n transfer of strata title, insurance if no bank is involved. Assuming that both parties using the same solicitor. Both properties r 20 years old building. I've tried to check online but the more I read abt others reply the more confused I get. To put it simply, other than the 500k I'll receive from the buyer n the 250k I have to pay to the seller, what other cost I have to bear for these 2 transactions? My parents recently bought a property at 488k n the legal fees is 17.5k. I have no way of knowing whether the fees is justified or not. Thanks again 4 being patience with me. I don know if I'm asking a silly question or not.
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If you're not taking a loan to purchase your new house you need not pay for valuation report and other bank charges.

You can't share the same solicitor. I've explained this in detail in an early post. Do look it up.

As purchaser, don't forget that you have to pay pro-rated quit rent ,assessment, and other outgoings. You've pretty much covered all the other costs.

One cannot judge legal fees by the price of the property. One must also look at number of purchasers (more costs for CKHT), whether there is individual title or otherwise, whether the fees are for both SPA and loan doc, etc.

Get a few quotations and compare. Want to know whether it is justified? Ask the lawyer to justify it for you. Simple. If he refuses, go to another lawyer.
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post Jan 15 2012, 10:51 PM

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QUOTE(leechers @ Jan 14 2012, 04:32 PM)
dario,

i bold out your statement, is this something right and parallel with law? can we challenge this? since the loan act on behalf of the bank, why should we pay for the fee? what is your opinion on this?
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It's nothing to do with law. It's about ethics.

Challenge it? And achieve what? You want to do the loan documentation all by yourself?

There was a time when banks used to absorb legal fees. Not anymore.

But the bank dictate the system. Unless the customers all protest and boycott the banks en bloc, I can't see how the system will change.
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post Jan 15 2012, 10:54 PM

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QUOTE(TkPerak @ Jan 14 2012, 11:45 PM)
Hi Dario,

What is the use of Letter of Intent in property transaction? How secure is the LoI to the purchaser? What can purchaser does if seller refuse to continue the transaction?
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The LOI is to confirm and secure the deal and terms pending finalising a formal SPA between the parties.

If the purchaser paid an earnest deposit - doesn't matter how much, even RM1 is sufficient - then the vendor is bound to abide by the terms of the LOI. If the vendor fails to proceed, the purchaser can sue to compel the vendor to sell it upon the terms of the LOI.

If nothing of value is given to the vendor, the vendor has no obligation to sell it at the agreed price upon the agreed terms.



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post Jan 15 2012, 10:58 PM

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QUOTE(it.fusion @ Jan 15 2012, 09:12 PM)
the appt has master title... is master title transfer are included by default in the S&P agreement or is it something separate ?
*
Are you taking about individual title for apartments?

Master title is the main title whereupon the whole block is constructed upon. Once the apartment is complete, the developer can apply for subdivision into strata title, i.e. individual title.

In the SPA, the developer will agree to execute a memorandum of transfer (MOT) to transfer the strata title to you, when the said strata title is ready. So when the time comes, the developer will notify you that you have to appoint a lawyer to prepare the necessary docs, espec the MOT, to transfer it to your name. You have to bear the legal fees for it.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Jan 15 2012, 10:58 PM
it.fusion
post Jan 16 2012, 01:36 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 15 2012, 10:58 PM)
Are you taking about individual title for apartments?

Master title is the main title whereupon the whole block is constructed upon. Once the apartment is complete, the developer can apply for subdivision into strata title, i.e. individual title.

In the SPA, the developer will agree to execute a memorandum of transfer (MOT) to transfer the strata title to you, when the said strata title is ready. So when the time comes, the developer will notify you that you have to appoint a lawyer to prepare the necessary docs, espec the MOT, to transfer it to your name. You have to bear the legal fees for it.
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yeap correct strata title.. in my case from owner to purchaser..

the owner already got the title already.. so during S&P between me and seller... is this title will be transfered to me by default ... or is it different process ?
TkPerak
post Jan 16 2012, 01:41 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 15 2012, 10:54 PM)
The LOI is to confirm and secure the deal and terms pending finalising a formal SPA between the parties.

If the purchaser paid an earnest deposit - doesn't matter how much, even RM1 is sufficient - then the vendor is bound to abide by the terms of the LOI. If the vendor fails to proceed, the purchaser can sue to compel the vendor to sell it upon the terms of the LOI.

If nothing of value is given to the vendor, the vendor has no obligation to sell it at the agreed price upon the agreed terms.
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Dear Dario,

Thank you for prompt reply.

If deposit was paid but the seller tried to delay and not to fulfill the terms in the LoI then how to proceed in this matter.

Thank you.
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post Jan 16 2012, 02:59 PM

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QUOTE(it.fusion @ Jan 16 2012, 01:36 PM)
yeap correct strata title.. in my case from owner to purchaser..

the owner already got the title already.. so during S&P between me and seller... is this title will be transfered to me by default ... or is it different process ?
*
Same process. Your lawyer would've prepared the MOT for you to execute when you attended to execute the SPA.
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post Jan 16 2012, 03:00 PM

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QUOTE(TkPerak @ Jan 16 2012, 01:41 PM)
Dear Dario,

Thank you for prompt reply.

If deposit was paid but the seller tried to delay and not to fulfill the terms in the LoI then how to proceed in this matter.

Thank you.
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Engage a lawyer and send a letter of demand. If he still fails to comply, you have to instruct your lawyer to file a civil suit in Court.
no-tech-know-logy
post Jan 16 2012, 03:46 PM

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Need some info on strata title for my apartment.
After i have paid all legal fees for the strata title, what is suppose to happen next? I made payment in 2008 but have not heard anything nor received any word on the title since then from the lawyers..
sorry... i'm a first time property owner..
TSdariofoo
post Jan 16 2012, 06:36 PM

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QUOTE(no-tech-know-logy @ Jan 16 2012, 03:46 PM)
Need some info on strata title for my apartment.
After i have paid all legal fees for the strata title, what is suppose to happen next? I made payment in 2008 but have not heard anything nor received any word on the title since then from the lawyers..
sorry... i'm a first time property owner..
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A photocopy of it ought to be sent to you. Call up the lawyer and request for it. nod.gif
TkPerak
post Jan 16 2012, 07:31 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 16 2012, 03:00 PM)
Engage a lawyer and send a letter of demand. If he still fails to comply, you have to instruct your lawyer to file a civil suit in Court.
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Hi Dario,

Thanks again.
rourou
post Jan 16 2012, 08:30 PM

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Hi peeps, can i ask 1 question on post completion matter? When I bought my property, all payment etc was made through my lawyer. At the end, they confirmed to me that all outstanding payment to the property was made and they have gotten copies of receipts (maintenance, water, quit rent) etc and sort out the calculations and apportionment before releasing the amount to the vendor. However, now after 1/2 a year later, I found out from the management office that the previous owner have not been paying the sinking fund for quite some time (amounts to RM4k++). Now, I am asking my lawyer to check and advise (on their records since they were the one who advise and release payment to vendor) but they have been ignoring my emails and phone calls. What can I do in this case? Would the lawyer be liable for the loss of this RM4k+?

thanks in advance for any advice.
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post Jan 17 2012, 12:53 AM

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QUOTE(rourou @ Jan 16 2012, 08:30 PM)
Hi peeps, can i ask 1 question on post completion matter?  When I bought my property, all payment etc was made through my lawyer.  At the end, they confirmed to me that all outstanding payment to the property was made and they have gotten copies of receipts (maintenance, water, quit rent) etc and sort out the calculations and apportionment before releasing the amount to the vendor.  However, now after 1/2 a year later, I found out from the management office that the previous owner have not been paying the sinking fund for quite some time (amounts to RM4k++).  Now, I am asking my lawyer to check and advise (on their records since they were the one who advise and release payment to vendor) but they have been ignoring my emails and phone calls.  What can I do in this case?  Would the lawyer be liable for the loss of this RM4k+? 

thanks in advance for any advice.
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Hmmm. Sounds like negligence on the part of the lawyer. Could that be the reason why they are ignoring you? Don't waste time with emails and calls.

Write an official letter and get it sent by hand - get it acknowledged. In your letter, you ought to state the chronology of events, proof of the outstanding amount, proof of their letter confirming that all dues have been settled, and demand for a formal explanation as to how the situation could have occurred.

Give them 7 days to reply in writing, and state that failing which you will file a formal complaint with the Advocate & Solicitor Disciplinary Board. Then they ought to reply to you. Don't need to cc it to any other party. If they still fail to comply then you need to file a formal complaint. The link is at the first page of this thread.
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post Jan 17 2012, 08:48 AM

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that is what i was afraid of!! i'm terrified that things may get messy sad.gif sad.gif but guess i'm out of option here sad.gif

many thanks dario! will do just that!!
TkPerak
post Jan 17 2012, 09:38 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 16 2012, 03:00 PM)
Engage a lawyer and send a letter of demand. If he still fails to comply, you have to instruct your lawyer to file a civil suit in Court.
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Hi Dario,

Sorry to ask again. In normal civil suit in this matter, what is the duration time from filing in court until the judgement date, how complex is the process and finally what will be the cost involved in term of % of purchase price.
Thank you.
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post Jan 17 2012, 11:25 AM

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QUOTE(TkPerak @ Jan 17 2012, 09:38 AM)
Hi Dario,

Sorry to ask again. In normal civil suit in this matter, what is the duration time from filing in court until the judgement date, how complex is the process and finally what will be the cost involved in term of % of purchase price.
Thank you.
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The process is not complex if your case is straightforward. You can apply for SUMMARY JUDGMENT if your case is clear-cut.

Costs: in terms of legal fees, it really varies as to the seniority of the lawyer (disbursements excluded) and the firm's standing if the case is straightforward. There is no % involved, unlike conveyancing matter where it's regulated by the Solicitors' Remuneration Order.

Courts Costs: at the discretion of the court to grant.

Duration: With the recent implementation Key Performance Index, the Courts nowadays are really 'working'. It'll be much faster than last time. This is of course subject to the lawyers' diligence.

TK

This post has been edited by me_1980s: Jan 17 2012, 11:27 AM
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post Jan 17 2012, 12:33 PM

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QUOTE(TkPerak @ Jan 17 2012, 09:38 AM)
Hi Dario,

Sorry to ask again. In normal civil suit in this matter, what is the duration time from filing in court until the judgement date, how complex is the process and finally what will be the cost involved in term of % of purchase price.
Thank you.
*
Duration of time really depends on the efficiency of your lawyer and that of the Court. It also depends if the other side engages a lawyer, or opts to settle the case and agree to sell the house to you, or pay you a certain sum in compensation which you are happy with. That would be the "best case scenario".

Another factor would be if they appeal. If they appeal, they can request for judgment to be stayed (postponed) until the hearing of the appeal. From High Court they can appeal to Court of Appeal. From the COA, if they lose, they can file an application for leave to appeal to the Federal Court. As property is involved, there is a possibility that a stay might be granted until the disposal of the appeal and the application for leave (if they proceed further). That would be the "worst case scenario".

Process is really not complex as the facts seem straightforward. Filing would be by way of writ of summons, followed by an application for an order for specific performance under Order 81, Rule 1(a), Rules of the High Court. Provided that there are no issues to be determined and if you can prove the fact that terms were agreed but the vendor blatantly refused to execute the SPA, then you have a reasonably good chance of success.

Legal fees is negotiable with the lawyer. There's no barometer or measure to calculate it.

Good luck

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TkPerak
post Jan 17 2012, 11:21 PM

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QUOTE(me_1980s @ Jan 17 2012, 11:25 AM)
The process is not complex if your case is straightforward. You can apply for SUMMARY JUDGMENT if your case is clear-cut.

Costs: in terms of legal fees, it really varies as to the seniority of the lawyer (disbursements excluded) and the firm's standing if the case is straightforward. There is no % involved, unlike conveyancing matter where it's regulated by the Solicitors' Remuneration Order.

Courts Costs: at the discretion of the court to grant.

Duration: With the recent implementation Key Performance Index, the Courts nowadays are really 'working'. It'll be much faster than last time. This is of course subject to the lawyers' diligence.

TK
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Hi me_1980,

Thank you for kind feedback.


Added on January 18, 2012, 1:08 am
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 17 2012, 12:33 PM)
Duration of time really depends on the efficiency of your lawyer and that of the Court. It also depends if the other side engages a lawyer, or opts to settle the case and agree to sell the house to you, or pay you a certain sum in compensation which you are happy with. That would be the "best case scenario".

Another factor would be if they appeal. If they appeal, they can request for judgment to be stayed (postponed) until the hearing of the appeal. From High Court they can appeal to Court of Appeal. From the COA, if they lose, they can file an application for leave to appeal to the Federal Court. As property is involved, there is a possibility that a stay might be granted until the disposal of the appeal and the application for leave (if they proceed further). That would be the "worst case scenario".

Process is really not complex as the facts seem straightforward. Filing would be by way of writ of summons, followed by an application for an order for specific performance under Order 81, Rule 1(a), Rules of the High Court. Provided that there are no issues to be determined and if you can prove the fact that terms were agreed but the vendor blatantly refused to execute the SPA, then you have a reasonably good chance of success.

Legal fees is negotiable with the lawyer. There's no barometer or measure to calculate it.

Good luck

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Hi Dario,

Thank you for above scenario and process plus explanation.

From above process of appeal and appeal again if the seller really want to drag on the whole matter , it seems that the process is a bit lengthy to the purchaser. Is it worth to proceed with the deal as the whole process is time consumed and emotional to the purchaser? What the early intention of the purchaser was to get the property but now is changed to get fairness of judgement.
Another question is what about if no time frame was being set for the seller to fulfill a term in the LoI, is the whole suit case will getting longer?
Thank you.

This post has been edited by TkPerak: Jan 18 2012, 01:08 AM
1282009
post Jan 18 2012, 02:15 AM

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Hi .. I'm in the progress of settling my homeloan pending redemption & release letter from the bank. I believe the release letter will be enough to prove that I'm free from the homeloan and can use that as evident to secure a 90% loan for my 3rd property if needed. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

I was told that the next final step is to hire a lawyer to get back my SNP and other documents from the bank. This process will take as long as a month time. Is that the case? How much does this normally cost and how long will it take to complete the whole procedure?

Thanks.


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post Jan 18 2012, 11:36 AM

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I'm trying to rent an office. Looking at the rental agreement, I doubt if the company named in the agreement is the real landlord.

As far as I know the rental agreement cannot be valid if the signee is not the landlord (or authorized by landlord).

How do I make sure that the real landlord sign the rental agreement with me ? Any way to find the real landlord ? Like a title search ? Who can help me with this ?
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QUOTE(TkPerak @ Jan 17 2012, 11:21 PM)
Is it worth to proceed with the deal as the whole process is time consumed and emotional to the purchaser?


Only you can answer that question. How much you want that property plus whether you can handle the effect of an ongoing litigation. Weigh the pros and cons first before proceeding.



QUOTE(TkPerak @ Jan 17 2012, 11:21 PM)
Another question is what about if no time frame was being set for the seller to fulfill a term in the LoI, is the whole suit case will getting longer?
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In the LOI a timeframe ought to be given to the purchaser to prepare and finalise a draft SPA. That is a normal term in a LOI. So, your lawyer needs to prepare the draft and send it over to him for his approval. His refusal to proceed would effectively be a breach of the LOI.
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QUOTE(1282009 @ Jan 18 2012, 02:15 AM)
Hi .. I'm in the progress of settling my homeloan pending redemption & release letter from the bank. I believe the release letter will be enough to prove that I'm free from the homeloan and can use that as evident to secure a 90% loan for my 3rd property if needed. Please correct me if I'm wrong.
*
This is procedural and depends on bank to bank. The best is to obtain advice from a banker from the bank in which you're making the new loan applic.


QUOTE(1282009 @ Jan 18 2012, 02:15 AM)
I was told that the next final step is to hire a lawyer to get back my SNP and other documents from the bank. This process will take as long as a month time. Is that the case? How much does this normally cost and how long will it take to complete the whole procedure?
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Discharge of charge/Deed of RnR costs RM300. If additional title, add RM100/title. Disbursements ought not cost more than RM250. Procedure would take, let's say 1 month at the soonest. Hopefully the bank didn't misplace or lost the original documents or else it would add to the time to complete it. More often than not, all would be ok and it'll be done within 4-6 weeks.
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QUOTE(luqmanz @ Jan 18 2012, 11:36 AM)
I'm trying to rent an office. Looking at the rental agreement, I doubt if the company named in the agreement is the real landlord.

As far as I know the rental agreement cannot be valid if the signee is not the landlord (or authorized by landlord).

How do I make sure that the real landlord sign the rental agreement with me ? Any way to find the real landlord ? Like a title search ? Who can help me with this ?
*
Ask for the company to provide you with a copy of the SPA in which they purchased the property. The actual purchaser/landlord ought to be stated there. No need to do land search.
X-Zen
post Jan 18 2012, 10:30 PM

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hi,

bought a property recently by paying 2% booking fee

Will sign the S&P soon next week

However the vendor / seller suddenly want to state in the S&P that the redemption will only be done by end of April (This is due to their bank loan lock in period will only end then)

So in order to save penalty fee to the bank, they want to impose this condition

Of course i don't agree to this because this was not stated upfront and also only make known after i paid the 2% so my 2% is stuck there now


After checking with my potential lawyer for this deal, according to him, we can disagree and not put in the S&P but there is NO stopping the vendor / seller to drag the redemption to their bank for a few months or even a year to complete

The extension due to this drag will only be compensated to me via extension of time to me and no monetary compensation

I find that strange as in that case then we buyer / purchaser are not protected at all. We are at the mercy of the vendor / seller?

Checking the standard S&P, i can't find any clause which will penalized or disallow the vendor / seller if this scenario happened

Only me the buyer / vendor will be penalized *% per annum if i cannot complete the deal in 3 months time


Any help to shed light or advice on this is much appreciated
Milo_O
post Jan 18 2012, 10:40 PM

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I'm planning to withdraw from my EPF Account 2. At the same time, i'm also planning to sign up for 80% loan from a bank.
At the moment, i have enough cash on hand to pay the 10% deposit which means i have the remaining 10% will come from my EPF account 2.
My question is when is the last day for me to make the 10% payment ?
Just right before 3 months from the SPA signed ?
The reason is i'm trying to drag the EPF withdrawal as long as i could as EPF is going to announce the dividend.
Once the dividend is announce, i will immediately submit for withdrawal but at the same time, i do not wish to take any risk of penalty charges of late 10% payment if there is any due to the time taken to process the withdrawal.
TSdariofoo
post Jan 18 2012, 10:40 PM

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QUOTE(X-Zen @ Jan 18 2012, 10:30 PM)

After checking with my potential lawyer for this deal, according to him, we can disagree and not put in the S&P but there is NO stopping the vendor / seller to drag the redemption to their bank for a few months or even a year to complete

The extension due to this drag will only be compensated to me via extension of time to me and no monetary compensation

I find that strange as in that case then we buyer / purchaser are not protected at all. We are at the mercy of the vendor / seller?

Checking the standard S&P, i can't find any clause which will penalized or disallow the vendor / seller if this scenario happened

Only me the buyer / vendor will be penalized *% per annum if i cannot complete the deal in 3 months time
Any help to shed light or advice on this is much appreciated
*
Your lawyer is absolutely right. Any delay by the vendor will result in the completion date to be extended in favour of you as the purchaser. The common understanding in SPAs is that:

Vendors want their money fast and conclude the deal AND Purchaser has the duty to make payment of the balance purchase price on/before the completion date. As such, any delay by purchaser and he has to pay late penalty interest to the vendor. Any delay by the vendor, and the purchaser gets more time. Vendor is at a loss as the market price of the property may go up. Factor in inflation as well and the depreciation of money - both factors whereof are detrimental to the vendor.

If upon completion of the SPA, the vendor fails to deliver vacant possession to you - then he has to pay late penalty interest to you. That is how it works.

So now, either you back out of the transaction or you be patient and agree to the clause to wait until April for redemption of the vendor's loan.

Usually, upon redemption, it takes 3-4 weeks to complete the SPA, so you're just looking at another few more weeks of delay.

If you execute the SPA in 2 weeks' time (bearing in mind the holidays and a few exchanges of drafts) - you're looking at the date of the SPA to be around the first week of March. End of April would be around 7-8 weeks from the time the SPA runs. If all goes well with redemption, you're looking at another 3-4 weeks to complete it. The standard completion date for SPA is 3 months. So, you'd still be within time. If there is a bit of delay, it'll be for another few weeks only.

Weigh the pros and cons first before deciding. How much do you want this property? Is the deal and price good that you won't be able to find another?
If you think you can't wait for it, then back out now. Good luck.

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X-Zen
post Jan 18 2012, 11:14 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 18 2012, 10:40 PM)
Your lawyer is absolutely right. Any delay by the vendor will result in the completion date to be extended in favour of you as the purchaser. The common understanding in SPAs is that:

Vendors want their money fast and conclude the deal AND Purchaser has the duty to make payment of the balance purchase price on/before the completion date. As such, any delay by purchaser and he has to pay late penalty interest to the vendor. Any delay by the vendor, and the purchaser gets more time. Vendor is at a loss as the market price of the property may go up. Factor in inflation as well and the depreciation of money - both factors whereof are detrimental to the vendor.

If upon completion of the SPA, the vendor fails to deliver vacant possession to you - then he has to pay late penalty interest to you. That is how it works.

So now, either you back out of the transaction or you be patient and agree to the clause to wait until April for redemption of the vendor's loan.

Usually, upon redemption, it takes 3-4 weeks to complete the SPA, so you're just looking at another few more weeks of delay.

If you execute the SPA in 2 weeks' time (bearing in mind the holidays and a few exchanges of drafts) - you're looking at the date of the SPA to be around the first week of March. End of April would be around 7-8 weeks from the time the SPA runs. If all goes well with redemption, you're looking at another 3-4 weeks to complete it. The standard completion date for SPA is 3 months. So, you'd still be within time. If there is a bit of delay, it'll be for another few weeks only.

Weigh the pros and cons first before deciding. How much do you want this property? Is the deal and price good that you won't be able to find another?
If you think you can't wait for it, then back out now. Good luck.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
thanks dario - your advice is always helpful

ok i actually want to back out of the deal now but the vendor is not agreeable ie he wants to continue and willing to remove that clause from our S&P

However as what you say above, he can just drag the redemption. My worry is that i have no visibility of the actual date. His lawyer say end of April but it can be end of May or even June

Furthermore he failed to mentioned this in the beginning

The 2% paid to the property agent and he has instructed the agent not to refund me.

Does he has the right to forfeit my deposit in this case?

What else can i do?

This is really unfair to the buyer


1282009
post Jan 19 2012, 01:22 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 18 2012, 12:52 PM)
This is procedural and depends on bank to bank. The best is to obtain advice from a banker from the bank in which you're making the new loan applic.
Discharge of charge/Deed of RnR costs RM300. If additional title, add RM100/title. Disbursements ought not cost more than RM250. Procedure would take, let's say 1 month at the soonest. Hopefully the bank didn't misplace or lost the original documents or else it would add to the time to complete it. More often than not, all would be ok and it'll be done within 4-6 weeks.
*
Hi Dario, thanks so much for the valuable info smile.gif


Added on January 19, 2012, 1:28 am
QUOTE(Milo_O @ Jan 18 2012, 10:40 PM)
I'm planning to withdraw from my EPF Account 2. At the same time, i'm also planning to sign up for 80% loan from a bank.
At the moment, i have enough cash on hand to pay the 10% deposit which means i have the remaining 10% will come from my EPF account 2.
My question is when is the last day for me to make the 10% payment ?
Just right before 3 months from the SPA signed ?
The reason is i'm trying to drag the EPF withdrawal as long as i could as EPF is going to announce the dividend.
Once the dividend is announce, i will immediately submit for withdrawal but at the same time, i do not wish to take any risk of penalty charges of late 10% payment if there is any due to the time taken to process the withdrawal.
*
I thought EPF interest is calculated monthly. So even if the dividend is announced later, the amount withdrawn will only affect the latest month's interest/dividend calculation. Actually I'm also in the same situation. I've withdrawn the EPF early this month but I believe I will still receive interest/dividend for the whole of last year for the amount I've withdrawn since my withdrawal is only in Jan-2012. Please correct my understanding if I'm wrong.



This post has been edited by 1282009: Jan 19 2012, 01:28 AM
TkPerak
post Jan 19 2012, 10:01 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 18 2012, 12:29 PM)
Only you can answer that question. How much you want that property plus whether you can handle the effect of an ongoing litigation. Weigh the pros and cons first before proceeding.
In the LOI a timeframe ought to be given to the purchaser to prepare and finalise a draft SPA. That is a normal term in a LOI. So, your lawyer needs to prepare the draft and send it over to him for his approval. His refusal to proceed would effectively be a breach of the LOI.
*
Hi Dario,

Thank you very much for answering and explanation.

I learn a lot from this thread....please keep up the good works.

Thank you.
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post Jan 19 2012, 11:14 AM

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QUOTE(X-Zen @ Jan 18 2012, 11:14 PM)

Does he has the right to forfeit my deposit in this case?

What else can i do?

This is really unfair to the buyer
*
Whether he has the right or otherwise will be stated in the letter of offer to purchase. So do take a look at it and see what it stipulates.

Another way is to proceed to draft the SPA and send out a draft to the vendor (or the vendor's lawyer). If parties fail to agree on a finalised SPA, then the transaction is deemed to be aborted. Look at the letter of offer again to see what it states in a situation of abortion of the transaction. If he has to refund you, then demand for it. If it is forfeited, then you can't do anything as you had agreed to such term and had executed the letter of offer containing same.

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post Jan 19 2012, 11:17 AM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Jan 18 2012, 10:40 PM)
My question is when is the last day for me to make the 10% payment ?
*
10% is payable on the date of execution of the SPA. You hand it over to your lawyer on that day. Your lawyer would then send over the SPAs and other docs to the vendor to be executed by the vendor, together with the cheque for 10%
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post Jan 19 2012, 11:17 AM

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QUOTE(TkPerak @ Jan 19 2012, 10:01 AM)
Thank you.
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Good luck with your matter. Come back for further enquiries.

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luqmanz
post Jan 19 2012, 11:55 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 18 2012, 01:04 PM)
Ask for the company to provide you with a copy of the SPA in which they purchased the property. The actual purchaser/landlord ought to be stated there. No need to do land search.
*
Even if he's shown the SPA, that doesnt mean he's the current owner. Maybe that SPA is before he sold the property to someone else.
I need third party source of information. Where can I get owner info of any property?

1282009
post Jan 19 2012, 12:25 PM

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I'm not sure if this is related to this thread. How long does the bank normally take to reduce the loan principal amount from the cheque sent by EPF?


Milo_O
post Jan 19 2012, 01:10 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 19 2012, 11:17 AM)
10% is payable on the date of execution of the SPA. You hand it over to your lawyer on that day. Your lawyer would then send over the SPAs and other docs to the vendor to be executed by the vendor, together with the cheque for 10%
*
dariofoo,
I think u may have misunderstand my question rclxub.gif

Property Selling Price = $ xxx (100%)
Deposit = 10% payable by myself using own cash
Loan from bank = 80%

Remaining 10% going to be paid using EPF withdrawal. Is this 10% to be paid out on the date of SPA execution ?

This post has been edited by Milo_O: Jan 19 2012, 01:11 PM
TSdariofoo
post Jan 19 2012, 01:14 PM

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QUOTE(luqmanz @ Jan 19 2012, 11:55 AM)
Even if he's shown the SPA, that doesnt mean he's the current owner. Maybe that SPA is before he sold the property to someone else.
I need third party source of information. Where can I get owner info of any property?
*
If there's individual/strata title - you can conduct a title search, but you'll still need the particulars of the title.

If no title, then you can check with the developer or management office.

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TSdariofoo
post Jan 19 2012, 01:15 PM

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QUOTE(1282009 @ Jan 19 2012, 12:25 PM)
I'm not sure if this is related to this thread. How long does the bank normally take to reduce the loan principal amount from the cheque sent by EPF?
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Best if you directly check with the bank in question. nod.gif
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post Jan 19 2012, 01:20 PM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Jan 19 2012, 01:10 PM)
dariofoo,
I think u may have misunderstand my question  rclxub.gif

Property Selling Price = $ xxx (100%)
Deposit =  10% payable by myself using own cash
Loan from bank = 80%

Remaining 10% going to be paid using EPF withdrawal. Is this 10% to be paid out on the date of SPA execution ?
*
Oh ok. Sorry.

For your info, this amount is called the differential sum.

Differential sum has to be deposited with your lawyer as stakeholder before the bank drawdowns the first release to redeem the vendor's loan. The bank would require confirmation that the differential sum has been deposited, before they will release. Until and unless you do so, the whole process would be on hold.

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Milo_O
post Jan 19 2012, 02:06 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 19 2012, 01:20 PM)
Oh ok. Sorry.

For your info, this amount is called the differential sum.

Differential sum has to be deposited with your lawyer as stakeholder before the bank drawdowns the first release to redeem the vendor's loan. The bank would require confirmation that the differential sum has been deposited, before they will release. Until and unless you do so, the whole process would be on hold.

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*
Thanks dariofoo notworthy.gif
I have another question here. What is the meaning of Letter of Undertaking ?
Who issue it and who shall receive it ? What is the reason of issuing and what function does it do ?

Thanks icon_question.gif


Added on January 19, 2012, 2:07 pm
QUOTE(1282009 @ Jan 19 2012, 01:22 AM)
Hi Dario, thanks so much for the valuable info smile.gif


Added on January 19, 2012, 1:28 am

I thought EPF interest is calculated monthly. So even if the dividend is announced later, the amount withdrawn will only affect the latest month's interest/dividend calculation. Actually I'm also in the same situation. I've withdrawn the EPF early this month but I believe I will still receive interest/dividend for the whole of last year for the amount I've withdrawn since my withdrawal is only in Jan-2012. Please correct my understanding if I'm wrong.
*
Let me make few phone calls to EPF hotline and get some clarification.
Few times wud ensure the authenticity of the information as u know, goverment office always provide different answer from person to person.

This post has been edited by Milo_O: Jan 19 2012, 02:07 PM
TSdariofoo
post Jan 19 2012, 10:55 PM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Jan 19 2012, 02:06 PM)
Thanks dariofoo  notworthy.gif
I have another question here. What is the meaning of Letter of Undertaking ?
Who issue it and who shall receive it ? What is the reason of issuing and what function does it do ?
*
Letter of undertaking (LOU) commonly refers to the undertaking (promise) given by a party to the purchaser's financier to refund the monies paid out by the financier to that party, as the case may be, in the event that either:

a) the deed of assignment cannot be perfected for any reason whatsoever; or
b) the charge in favour of the purchaser's financier cannot be registered for any reason whatsoever; or
c) the deed of receipt n reassignment cannot be perfected for any reason whatsoever.

Party - depends on to whom the money is paid out to:
- Vendor in case of subsale
- Developer/proprietor in case of purchase from developer
- End/bridging financier also in cases of purchase from developer where monies are still owed to the bridging financier by the developer
- Vendor's financier where a redemption sum is paid out.

Why LOU has to be issued by the above parties?

Because there is no contract in writing between the parties. The contract is between the borrower/purchaser with the purchaser's financier. Both parties are privy to the contract, and the external parties are not privy to it as they are not signatories. Under the law of contract, only parties who are privy to a contract are bound by its terms.

As such, the LOU binds the party giving it to refund the monies in the occurrence of an event which basically frustrates the contract between the borrower/purchaser and the purchaser's financier - thus terminating it.

Example - deed of assignment (DOA) cannot be perfected. This refers to deed of assignment between vendor and purchaser. If vendor cannot assign his beneficial right over the property, then the subsequent DOA between the purchaser and the purchaser's financier would also collapse and be of no effect. As such, the vendor must refund all monies paid by the purchaser's financier back to them. The LOU is basically a contract between the vendor and the purchaser's financier. Think of it as a bridge between the vendor and the purchaser's financier.

Without the LOU, there is nothing to protect the bank's interest if such event as stated above occurs, as there would be no binding contract between the party and the bank.

That is why even before first release of drawdown, the original LOU must be forwarded to the bank for their safekeeping.

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This post has been edited by dariofoo: Jan 19 2012, 10:56 PM
Milo_O
post Jan 19 2012, 11:46 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 19 2012, 10:55 PM)
Letter of undertaking (LOU) commonly refers to the undertaking (promise) given by a party to the purchaser's financier to refund the monies paid out by the financier to that party, as the case may be, in the event that either:

a) the deed of assignment cannot be perfected for any reason whatsoever; or
b) the charge in favour of the purchaser's financier cannot be registered for any reason whatsoever; or
c) the deed of receipt n reassignment cannot be perfected for any reason whatsoever.


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Thank u !
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1282009
post Jan 20 2012, 01:35 AM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Jan 19 2012, 02:06 PM)
Thanks dariofoo  notworthy.gif
I have another question here. What is the meaning of Letter of Undertaking ?
Who issue it and who shall receive it ? What is the reason of issuing and what function does it do ?

Thanks  icon_question.gif


Added on January 19, 2012, 2:07 pm

Let me make few phone calls to EPF hotline and get some clarification.
Few times wud ensure the authenticity of the information as u know, goverment office always provide different answer from person to person.
*
In that case, please update me as well. Thanks.




Dino168
post Jan 20 2012, 01:55 PM

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I have a property that I have just sold off ... but tenant still owes me rental. New owner's lawyer wanted me to pass over the tenancy agreement (knowing that the tenant still owes me money). My lawyer is saying that I have to give the agreement to complete that transaction. Is this true? Can I get the tenancy agreement back; when I want to take legal action again the tenant. Please advise.

Thanks.
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post Jan 20 2012, 02:58 PM

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QUOTE(1282009 @ Jan 20 2012, 01:35 AM)
In that case, please update me as well. Thanks.
*
This is the answer to a question related to EPF withdrawal before dividend announcement.

Question:
Scenario 1:
If i make my EPF withdrawal after 31 Dec and before EPF dividend announcement (usually on March), it would not affect the dividend payment.
Dividend payment would take the last number as of Dec for dividend calculation

Scenario 2:
If i make my EPF withdrawal before 31 Dec e.g Oct and before the EPF dividend announcement, dividend payment would take the last number as of Oct for divident calculation

This is a one time calling to EPF center.
I will call another one more time to get confirmation and validate the above info.
I hope my explaination can be understand by u.
My humble apologies if my explaination is not clear. Let me know and i will try to simplify it blush.gif


sytians
post Jan 20 2012, 03:23 PM

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hi,

hopefully i am in the right thread... coz i dunno where to ask this question.
can't managed to google it as well..

anyway, may i know why a 2 1/2 storey shoplot can have 2 master title?
it is a lease hold..

thank you
vinothiny
post Jan 20 2012, 06:10 PM

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Hye dario,

I need advice from you. Here is the situation. I have 2 property which is under my parent name. Now my dad wants to transfer his title to me and my sis. What are the procedures that we need to go through? And is it possible if i settle it without the lawyer assistance? And if it is compulsory that we need lawyer's help,how much would it normally cost? Both of the property is still under installment. They are 99years of leasehold. I need your opinion on how to transfer the title that can minimise the cost. Thanks..


1282009
post Jan 20 2012, 07:36 PM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Jan 20 2012, 02:58 PM)
This is the answer to a question related to EPF withdrawal before dividend announcement.

Question:
Scenario 1:
If i make my EPF withdrawal after 31 Dec and before EPF dividend announcement (usually on March), it would not affect the dividend payment.
Dividend payment would take the last number as of Dec for dividend calculation

Scenario 2:
If i make my EPF withdrawal before 31 Dec e.g Oct and before the EPF dividend announcement, dividend payment would take the last number as of Oct for divident calculation

This is a one time calling to EPF center.
I will call another one more time to get confirmation and validate the above info.
I hope my explaination can be understand by u.
My humble apologies if my explaination is not clear. Let me know and i will try to simplify it  blush.gif
*
Thanks so much. My senario is #1 above which matches my understanding previously whereby I will still get dividend for year 2011 until Dec as my withdrawal is Jan 2012 smile.gif


TSdariofoo
post Jan 20 2012, 11:57 PM

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QUOTE(Dino168 @ Jan 20 2012, 01:55 PM)
I have a property that I have just sold off ... but tenant still owes me rental.  New owner's lawyer wanted me to pass over the tenancy agreement (knowing that the tenant still owes me money).    My lawyer is saying that I have to give the agreement to complete that transaction.    Is this true?    Can I get the tenancy agreement back; when I want to take legal action again the tenant.  Please advise.

Thanks.
*
Does it state that you need to hand over the original? What is the purpose of handing it over to the purchaser's lawyer? If they want the details to prepare the draft SPA, a photocopy would suffice.
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post Jan 20 2012, 11:58 PM

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Milo_o:
» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Thanks for the info icon_rolleyes.gif
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post Jan 21 2012, 12:03 AM

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QUOTE(vinothiny @ Jan 20 2012, 06:10 PM)
Hye dario,

I need advice from you. Here is the situation. I have 2 property which is under my parent name. Now my dad wants to transfer his title to me and my sis. What are the procedures that we need to go through? And is it possible if i settle it without the lawyer assistance? And if it is compulsory that we need lawyer's help,how much would it normally cost? Both of the property is still under installment. They are 99years of leasehold. I need your opinion on how to transfer the title that can minimise the cost. Thanks..
*
Still under installment would mean that there is an existing charge/assignment in favour of the bank. In other words, the bank is technically the beneficial owner of the property. You can either approach the bank and request to do a transfer subject to charge (if there's individual title). The bank can allow you do so subject to certain conditions, or request that a refinance plus transfer is done. Most likely, they would ask you to refinance. In both circumstances, you'd require a lawyer to do it.

If refinance, you and your sis is basically taking a new loan to settle your parents' loan and then a transfer of ownership is done. Legal fees are according to the loan sum taken and can be calculated at the first page of this thread using the calculator at the link provided.

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vinothiny
post Jan 21 2012, 12:55 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 21 2012, 12:03 AM)
Still under installment would mean that there is an existing charge/assignment in favour of the bank. In other words, the bank is technically the beneficial owner of the property. You can either approach the bank and request to do a transfer subject to charge (if there's individual title). The bank can allow you do so subject to certain conditions, or request that a refinance plus transfer is done. Most likely, they would ask you to refinance. In both circumstances, you'd require a lawyer to do it.

If refinance, you and your sis is basically taking a new loan to settle your parents' loan and then a transfer of ownership is done. Legal fees are according to the loan sum taken and can be calculated at the first page of this thread using the calculator at the link provided.

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*
thanks alot. ill discuss with my sis and parent. =)
awdarr
post Jan 21 2012, 01:02 AM

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I got my credit report from bank negara yesterday. Is it safe to furnish the report to the banks which I'm going to apply the housing loan? 1 of the agents requested me to furnish the report.


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post Jan 21 2012, 02:03 PM

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QUOTE(vinothiny @ Jan 21 2012, 12:55 AM)
thanks alot. ill discuss with my sis and parent. =)
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Hey Dario,

If i don wanna transfer the name at the moment but delete my dad's name under the 2property,will it be cheaper than the cost of transfering title? Because now those properties are under my dad's and mom's name. So now if i take out my dad's name and put solely under my mom's name,will it be more convenient and way cheaper?
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post Jan 21 2012, 02:48 PM

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QUOTE(vinothiny @ Jan 21 2012, 02:03 PM)
Hey Dario,

If i don wanna transfer the name at the moment but delete my dad's name under the 2property,will it be cheaper than the cost of transfering title? Because now those properties are under my dad's and mom's name. So now if i take out my dad's name and put solely under my mom's name,will it be more convenient and way cheaper?
*
I think you're confused. There's no difference in 'deleting' your dad's name or 'transfering title' or 'taking out your dad's name''. All those terms (although not in its proper context) is basically the same.

It all boils down to the same thing - transferring ownership from your dad to another party, whether it's your mum, you or your sis.

So the cost would be the same if you refinance it and do a transfer.

The only way it would be cheaper, in terms of legal fees at least, is if the bank consents to a transfer subject to charge (if there's individual title). If you have to refinance, then you're looking at legal fees for transfer as well as refinancing, which is essentially taking a new loan.
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post Jan 21 2012, 02:50 PM

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QUOTE(awdarr @ Jan 21 2012, 01:02 AM)
I got my credit report from bank negara yesterday. Is it safe to furnish the report to the banks which I'm going to apply the housing loan? 1 of the agents requested me to furnish the report.
*
Is it their requirement? Perhaps this particular bank requires it. If you doubt the agent's word why don't you call the bank directly to enquire if it is necessary.

Why did you get the credit report out?
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post Jan 22 2012, 05:44 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 21 2012, 02:50 PM)
Is it their requirement? Perhaps this particular bank requires it. If you doubt the agent's word why don't you call the bank directly to enquire if it is necessary.

Why did you get the credit report out?
*
Hi, anybody can answer if we need to fully settle
the bank loan after 5 years, what prosedure
that we need to do? Thanks. icon_question.gif
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post Jan 22 2012, 06:41 PM

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QUOTE(Seremban_Guy123 @ Jan 22 2012, 05:44 PM)
Hi, anybody can answer if we need to fully settle
the bank loan after 5 years, what prosedure
that we need to do? Thanks.  icon_question.gif
*
Go to the bank, ask for a redemption statement to know how much the sum you need to pay, then make payment.

You don't need a lawyer at this stage, unless you want to retrieve the original documents, grant and other docs from the bank for your own safekeeping. Normally folks would just leave all that with the bank until they sell the property, refinance it or transfer ownership to another party.

If you opt for that, your lawyer would prepare a discharge of charge/deed of receipt and reassignment. That document officially indicate that the bank does not hold the property as security anymore and you are free to deal with it as you like.

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post Jan 22 2012, 09:10 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 22 2012, 06:41 PM)
Go to the bank, ask for a redemption statement to know how much the sum you need to pay, then make payment.

You don't need a lawyer at this stage, unless you want to retrieve the original documents, grant and other docs from the bank for your own safekeeping. Normally folks would just leave all that with the bank until they sell the property, refinance it or transfer ownership to another party.

If you opt for that, your lawyer would prepare a discharge of charge/deed of receipt and reassignment. That document officially indicate that the bank does not hold the property as security anymore and you are free to deal with it as you like.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
"You don't need a lawyer at this stage, unless you want to retrieve the original documents, grant and other docs from the bank for your own safekeeping. Normally folks would just leave all that with the bank until they sell the property, refinance it or transfer ownership to another party."

Hi, thanks for sharing the info on this. Is it safe to keep the docs with the bank? I'm actually settling my homeloan (in progress of getting the redemption letter). I plan to request the settlement/release letter (after settling the loan to apply for another housing loan) instead of the discharge letter since the latter will take a longer time frame.


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post Jan 23 2012, 06:52 AM

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QUOTE(1282009 @ Jan 22 2012, 09:10 PM)
"You don't need a lawyer at this stage, unless you want to retrieve the original documents, grant and other docs from the bank for your own safekeeping. Normally folks would just leave all that with the bank until they sell the property, refinance it or transfer ownership to another party."

Hi, thanks for sharing the info on this. Is it safe to keep the docs with the bank? I'm actually settling my homeloan (in progress of getting the redemption letter). I plan to request the settlement/release letter (after settling the loan to apply for another housing loan) instead of the discharge letter since the latter will take a longer time frame.
*
Happy New Year to All. thumbup.gif
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post Jan 23 2012, 12:19 PM

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QUOTE(1282009 @ Jan 22 2012, 09:10 PM)
Hi, thanks for sharing the info on this. Is it safe to keep the docs with the bank?
*
Why not? Is it safe to keep your money with the bank? Do you? biggrin.gif

Free storage for you,mate. For the time being, all you need is the release letter from the bank.



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Gong Xi Fatt Chai to all forummers!

Have a blessed celebration to usher in the Year of the Dragon. May this year be a prosperous one to us all!
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1282009
post Jan 23 2012, 02:28 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 23 2012, 12:19 PM)
Why not? Is it safe to keep your money with the bank? Do you?  biggrin.gif

Free storage for you,mate. For the time being, all you need is the release letter from the bank.
*
Hahaha good one! Thanks again for your advice. Happy CNY to you!




Kerry1136
post Jan 23 2012, 07:47 PM

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Hello,

Would require a 3rd party lawyer's advice on this.

Basically the unit which I purchase a year ago, the S&P states on Jan2012 everything will end but due to endless of holidays and land office not working "efficiently" and the seller could not produce sufficient documents, it delays for a week after the stated date in the S&P.

Now I believe we are in the final stage of the process as the banks have disperse the $ and whats left is the seller to produce the original document to my lawyer to seek land office for name transfer or something like that.

With the CNY and such I'm assuming it might drag until next month too. But the thing is my lawyers said I don't have to serve late penalty even though it past the foresaid date but I'm already starting to pay bank interests already as my loaned bank already disperse the $ to the seller.

Now my concern is, if it continues dragging like this and the seller is still renting out the place to their friends, should I still be continue paying the bank interests? Should they be paying me late penalty instead since they are dragging the process?
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post Jan 24 2012, 12:58 AM

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QUOTE(Kerry1136 @ Jan 23 2012, 07:47 PM)
Now my concern is, if it continues dragging like this and the seller is still renting out the place to their friends, should I still be continue paying the bank interests? Should they be paying me late penalty instead since they are dragging the process?
*
I'll repeat my answer to an almost similar question:-

Any delay by the vendor will result in the completion date to be extended in favour of you as the purchaser. The common understanding in SPAs is that:

Vendors want their money fast and conclude the deal AND Purchaser has the duty to make payment of the balance purchase price on/before the completion date. As such, any delay by purchaser and he has to pay late penalty interest to the vendor. Any delay by the vendor, and the purchaser gets more time. Vendor is at a loss as the market price of the property may go up. Factor in inflation as well and the depreciation of money - both factors whereof are detrimental to the vendor.

If upon completion of the SPA, the vendor fails to deliver vacant possession to you - then he has to pay late penalty interest to you. That is how it works.

The rule does not change even though you have started servicing the interest upon your loan. Delay by the vendor only grants you more time to complete the transaction.

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post Jan 24 2012, 11:43 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 24 2012, 12:58 AM)
I'll repeat my answer to an almost similar question:-

Any delay by the vendor will result in the completion date to be extended in favour of you as the purchaser. The common understanding in SPAs is that:

Vendors want their money fast and conclude the deal AND Purchaser has the duty to make payment of the balance purchase price on/before the completion date. As such, any delay by purchaser and he has to pay late penalty interest to the vendor. Any delay by the vendor, and the purchaser gets more time. Vendor is at a loss as the market price of the property may go up. Factor in inflation as well and the depreciation of money - both factors whereof are detrimental to the vendor.

If upon completion of the SPA, the vendor fails to deliver vacant possession to you - then he has to pay late penalty interest to you. That is how it works.

The rule does not change even though you have started servicing the interest upon your loan. Delay by the vendor only grants you more time to complete the transaction.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Hello, sorry for being blunt but I do not see myself being the purchaser any beneficial since the way I see it, I don't have the keys to my place yet but I'm starting to pay bank interests and someone is still living there and the condition of the property will decrease over time.

You mentioned that upon completion of the SPA the vendor fails to deliver I should be getting the late penalty from the vendor, in my case the SPA mentioned it was to be completed before the 17th and after that there will be another month of extension with daily interest as penalty. (usually the case). So base on this does that mean vendor should be paying me the month after or effective 17th onwards?
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post Jan 25 2012, 11:50 AM

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QUOTE(Kerry1136 @ Jan 24 2012, 11:43 PM)
You mentioned that upon completion of the SPA the vendor fails to deliver I should be getting the late penalty from the vendor, in my case the SPA mentioned it was to be completed before the 17th and after that there will be another month of extension with daily interest as penalty. (usually the case). So base on this does that mean vendor should be paying me the month after or effective 17th onwards?
*
That completion date refers to time given to you as purchaser to complete the SPA, i.e. to make payment of balance purchase price (BPP) to the vendor.

Once that is done, look at your SPA for a term which states the number of days for the vendor to hand over VP to you - it's normally 3 - 5 days. If after 3-5 days lapses and he still fail to hand over VP to you, he has to pay you late penalty interest. As such, it doesn't go by the date, i.e. 17th or any other date. It starts to run from the date you pay the BPP and after the time given to him to hand over VP.


Kerry1136
post Jan 25 2012, 12:30 PM

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Wow great! Thanks for the comment Dario.

With this in mind, I'll check with my lawyers to see whether compensation is required from vendor's side.

Oh and forgot to wish you happy holidays and CNY if you are celebrating.

This post has been edited by Kerry1136: Jan 25 2012, 12:31 PM
Skydrop
post Jan 25 2012, 03:36 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 11 2012, 01:34 PM)
No other expenses? Legal fees, agent fees also can be included as expenses.

RM380K - 240K - 50K - any further deductions = nett gain

Nett gain x 5% = CKHT/RPGT

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Yeah, pay legal fee, agent fee as well. Need receipts for all claims is it? Renovations & fittings also need receipts? Is there a site where I can go and see what is claimable and what is not?


Thank you & Gong Xi Fa Cai to you!
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post Jan 25 2012, 03:51 PM

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QUOTE(Skydrop @ Jan 25 2012, 03:36 PM)
Yeah, pay legal fee, agent fee as well.  Need receipts for all claims is it?  Renovations & fittings also need receipts?  Is there a site where I can go and see what is claimable and what is not?
Thank you & Gong Xi Fa Cai to you!
*
Yes, you need receipts for all claims. For agent fees, the letter of offer ought to be sufficient as it states that the sum will be held by the agent. If you have a receipt by the agent, all the better. For renovations, purchase of fixtures and fitting, all can be claimed. If there is damage to the property and a sum of money is spent to repair/restore it, that can be claimed as well.
All must be evidenced with receipts.

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awdarr
post Jan 25 2012, 06:15 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 21 2012, 02:50 PM)
Is it their requirement? Perhaps this particular bank requires it. If you doubt the agent's word why don't you call the bank directly to enquire if it is necessary.

Why did you get the credit report out?
*
According to the agent, their system would not show in details of the loan, for example, the name of the bank that provides the loan and the loan details such as the account#.


Added on January 25, 2012, 6:23 pmI've another query. When I was still studying overseas some 15-16 years ago in the States, I recalled that I've some outstanding credit cards that I overlooked paying. The amount is not big at all, probably 3 to 4 hundred dollars and the bank concerned are local banks to the country. My concern (not sure this is the right place to ask this) is that whether any agency will blacklist me and bar me from entering the country, for example during visa application or when entering the immigration?



This post has been edited by awdarr: Jan 25 2012, 06:23 PM
TSdariofoo
post Jan 25 2012, 06:49 PM

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QUOTE(awdarr @ Jan 25 2012, 06:15 PM)
I've another query. When I was still studying overseas some 15-16 years ago in the States, I recalled that I've some outstanding credit cards that I overlooked paying. The amount is not big at all, probably 3 to 4 hundred dollars and the bank concerned are local banks to the country. My concern (not sure this is the right place to ask this) is that whether any agency will blacklist me and bar me from entering the country, for example during visa application or when entering the immigration?
*
15-16 years is a long time ago and the banks might've written it off as bad debt. Are the banks still in operation?

You might want to call up the US Embassy and check with them if you're blacklisted. If you are then you'd fail at the visa application stage itself.
sapphire_rock
post Jan 28 2012, 07:58 AM

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Hi Dario,

I bought a property 8 years ago together with my sister.

We got the loan approved with both our name and therefore the title and the loan is under both our name.

Few year ago, i actually refinance the loan. The loan is now only under my name but the title is still me and my sister name.

Say right now, i would like to remove my sister name from the title. Do you see any complication involves? What would be the fees like?

Thanks.
awdarr
post Jan 29 2012, 01:11 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 25 2012, 06:49 PM)
15-16 years is a long time ago and the banks might've written it off as bad debt. Are the banks still in operation?

You might want to call up the US Embassy and check with them if you're blacklisted. If you are then you'd fail at the visa application stage itself.
*
Thank you for the advice. I guess I will know then when I apply the visa.


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post Jan 29 2012, 01:23 AM

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QUOTE(sapphire_rock @ Jan 28 2012, 07:58 AM)
Hi Dario,

I bought a property 8 years ago together with my sister.

We got the loan approved with both our name and therefore the title and the loan is under both our name.

Few year ago, i actually refinance the loan. The loan is now only under my name but the title is still me and my sister name.

Say right now, i would like to remove my sister name from the title. Do you see any complication involves? What would be the fees like?

Thanks.
*
Your sis has to be agreeable to it. If she's ok, it's just her signature on the Form 14A to transfer which is needed. Issue is only with the bank - you need to check with them if they can agree to the transfer without the need to refinance. The bank as the chargee has to agree to the transfer subject to charge.

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k3v1n
post Jan 30 2012, 12:18 PM

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Hi Dario, Gong Xi Fatt Cai to you. I got a question here. My Snp dated 22 November 2011 which will be due on next month, I called my lawyer to ask the status of loan release, I ask her if the loan havent release after the snp date, will I get penalty? She said no, the 3+1 months will be only start calculating after she get the consent from developer, not calculate from the snp date...I'm confuse, I thought once over 3 months from the snp date, I will get penalty from vendor? Hope you can clarify for me? Thanks you!
Seremban_Guy123
post Jan 30 2012, 12:58 PM

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I wish to fully settle the bank loan by this year.
May I know any hidden cost that I need to pay
either lawyer / bank before / after the loan
settlement. thanks

This post has been edited by Seremban_Guy123: Jan 30 2012, 12:59 PM
kk2628
post Jan 30 2012, 07:26 PM

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Hi Dario and all sifus,

I need legal guidance on insolvency and restructuring (not sure this is the right term to use) and I have approached a few lawfirms, they said they are not practicing this area, and asked me to approached Bar Council, but Bar Council said they have no such information based on category of services.

Basically, I am going take over portion of shares of a small company, I need advise on S&P, Caveat the company assets e.g. bank accounts, Change of BOD, sell of subsidiary company, etc.... The company is in heavy debts, and need to salvage.

Any advise which area of lawfirm should I approach ? I have tried commercial litigation, corporate advisory, etc but so far not one firm told me they can work with me in this process.

sharpeye
post Jan 30 2012, 07:44 PM

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Hi everyone, Dario especially smile.gif ,

My vendor refuse to provide the document to our newly purchased house until we tell them the exact date he can receive the payment (Black and white from the bank).

Everything is done from my side, the only thing needed are the documents from the vendor that is Loan document of the first vendor, Principal SPA, Proclamation of Sale, quit rent etc. and then only bank can proceed with the payment.

FYI the house i bought is free from encumberence and a second hand house.

Legally, do i need to provide the date of payment.
and can the vendor hold the document even though everything is ready from my side?

Thanks in advance

This post has been edited by sharpeye: Jan 30 2012, 07:47 PM
1282009
post Jan 30 2012, 11:55 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 18 2012, 12:52 PM)
This is procedural and depends on bank to bank. The best is to obtain advice from a banker from the bank in which you're making the new loan applic.
Discharge of charge/Deed of RnR costs RM300. If additional title, add RM100/title. Disbursements ought not cost more than RM250. Procedure would take, let's say 1 month at the soonest. Hopefully the bank didn't misplace or lost the original documents or else it would add to the time to complete it. More often than not, all would be ok and it'll be done within 4-6 weeks.
*
The bank's panel lawyer quoted me around RM630 for the whole thing (mine is without strata title yet so its slightly more expensive).


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post Jan 31 2012, 08:07 AM

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QUOTE(k3v1n @ Jan 30 2012, 12:18 PM)
Hi Dario, Gong Xi Fatt Cai to you. I got a question here. My Snp dated 22 November 2011 which will be due on next month, I called my lawyer to ask the status of loan release, I ask her if the loan havent release after the snp date, will I get penalty? She said no, the 3+1 months will be only start calculating after she get the consent from developer, not calculate from the snp date...I'm confuse, I thought once over 3 months from the snp date, I will get penalty from vendor? Hope you can clarify for me? Thanks you!
*
Gong Xi Fatt Chai to you too,mate. icon_rolleyes.gif

For property under master title where the letter of confirmation/consent from the developer is required, then time starts to run from the date the lawyer receives the letter of confirmation. Some lawyers write in advance and receive a reply before the execution of the SPA. In such cases, time can start to run from the date of the SPA.

Some lawyers prefer to play safe and wait until the SPA is executed before writing to the developer and await a reply. In such cases, like yours, time starts to run from the date the lawyer receives the letter of confirmation.

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post Jan 31 2012, 08:21 AM

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QUOTE(Seremban_Guy123 @ Jan 30 2012, 12:58 PM)
I wish to fully settle the bank loan by this year.
May I know any hidden cost that I need to pay
either lawyer / bank before / after the loan
settlement. thanks
*
What do you mean by hidden costs? Are you aware of the non-hidden costs? hmm.gif
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post Jan 31 2012, 08:40 AM

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QUOTE(sharpeye @ Jan 30 2012, 07:44 PM)
Legally, do i need to provide the date of payment.
and can the vendor hold the document even though everything is ready from my side?

Thanks in advance
*
I do not know what is provided for in your SPA, so what advice I can give is based on common practice.

Under normal circumstances, you don't have to provide the date of payment. The completion date and extended completion date, which can be easily deduced from the SPA is sufficient. Why don't you use that? Your lawyer can issue such a letter, but to get one from the bank is close to impossible as it is not their concern and they won't issue such letter.

In any event, unless your SPA allows the vendor to demand for such letter before he releases the documents, he basically can't do so. His attitude will only extend the completion date of the SPA, and this prejudices him as he would not get his balance purchase price until this is resolved.

Under normal circumstances, the bank has to give an undertaking to the vendor that it will release the loan. Once that undertaking is given, there is no reason for the vendor to hold the documents. He has a certain number of days to hand it over to your lawyer. Once that deadline is missed, the completion date is extended.

I'm assuming that the vendor is not represented? You did not mention. If so, best to advice your lawyer to speak/write to the vendor. Or perhaps try to speak to the real estate agent and see if he can drill some sense into the vendor's head. Perhaps the vendor does not understand that what he is doing is only delaying things to his detriment.


pristina
post Jan 31 2012, 10:36 AM

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where should look for the auction properties online?
ave_20
post Jan 31 2012, 12:08 PM

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Hi, please help me..

I bought a flat 2 years a ago with cash. Recently I received a liquidator's letter saying the developer already bankcrupt. He ask me to

1. pay 2% liquidator fee based on the prevailing selling price.

2.Solicitor's vetting fee RM315

3. letter of confirmation of payment of maintanance charges up to date.

4. The principle sale and purchase agreement btw developer and 1st buyer

5. The loan agreement btw 1st buyer and end-financier

6 the deed of assignment between 1st purchaser and end financier

7. the deed of receipt and reassignment bewteen 1st buyer and end financier

8 All the agreement (4-7) btw various parties from 1st purchaser and to the purchaser prior to the claimant.

9. letter of undertaking cum Indemnity issue by claimant

10. Official receipt issue by the management corporation supporting full paymant of building and maintenance arrears accrued till to date.

Do I really have to pay 2% liquidator fee? 2% is a lot!
I am the 4th purchaser. some of the above documents are not with me(i.e. no 7), how?

the master title is charged to MBSB and strata title has not yet issued. I am worried because the person from management told me yesterday that if i bought this house by cash, then my house will be auctioned. Can you confirm this? If yes, what can i do?

besides, is it true that i can't sell my house anymore if the strata title not issued?

Thanks a lot
gs20
post Jan 31 2012, 01:48 PM

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Dear Lawyers,

Should I pay the interest to the seller due to bank didn't release full payment on time? According to the bank, they lack few documents. But up until today, none of the lawyer call me & requesting for the documents. As according to the seller, those documents should come from my end.

This post has been edited by gs20: Jan 31 2012, 11:30 PM
TSdariofoo
post Jan 31 2012, 03:35 PM

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QUOTE(1282009 @ Jan 30 2012, 11:55 PM)
The bank's panel lawyer quoted me around RM630 for the whole thing (mine is without strata title yet so its slightly more expensive).
*
Seems to be alright. If not happy you always have the option to get another quotation. nod.gif
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post Jan 31 2012, 04:38 PM

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ave_20:
» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Basically the liquidator is stepping into the shoes of the developer and is taking over all affairs of the developer. The 2% would be to cover their expenses in running the show. The liquidator's job is to clear off the assets and liabilites of the developer at the lowest cost possible. As such, they are indirectly asking the poor purchasers/owners to bear the burden of costs with them.

This is where you need to check with the Joint Management Body (JMB) of your flat and find out what their stand is. All residents have to be united in their stand. No point if you pay and your neighbour doesn't pay.

In fact, what tehe JMB ought to do is to write formally to the liquidator and ask the basis of such fees and for them to justify the law which allows them to charge the purchasers for it. Why should the purchasers bear the costs on behalf of the developer when all dues have been paid to the developer already?

With regard to the documents - how come the trail of documents is not complete? If property without title, the trail of Deed of Assignments (DOA) and Deed of Receipt n Reassignment (DRR) must be complete from day 1 until yourself. Only then is the beneficial interest in the property properly passed on from one party to another. If one document is missing, the trail is broken. Did you lawyer give you the complete set? Did you misplace it? Or perhaps it was not handed over to you via oversight? This is urgent and you need to check it. The reason why the Liq is asking from you all this is because the developer must've packed up and left town without leaving any proper records!

Your house will not be auctioned because you bought by cash. That person is talking rubbish.

A letter of disclaimer must've been issued by the end-financier way back to the first purchaser/purchaser's financier. So there's nothing to worry about.

It is not true that you cannot sell your house without strata title. How did you obtain ownership in the first place (plus the previous purchasers before you) if all the while, strata title is not out? Don't worry about that.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Feb 1 2012, 09:53 AM
1282009
post Jan 31 2012, 08:21 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 31 2012, 03:35 PM)
Seems to be alright. If not happy you always have the option to get another quotation.  nod.gif
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Thanks, should be ok for me too smile.gif


TkPerak
post Feb 2 2012, 10:36 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 19 2012, 11:17 AM)
Good luck with your matter. Come back for further enquiries.

icon_rolleyes.gif
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Dear Dario,

Engaged a lawyer to deal with the seller/their lawyer. Requested the seller to provide documents of proof of the progress of the term in LoI . However, the seller/their lawyer just did not bother but returned the deposit by registered mail to buyer lawyer. Can the seller/their lawyer do like that (returning the deposit)? Just wonder is LoI really a legal binding document. What is the stand or step to take if the buyer want the deal go through?

Thank you
ave_20
post Feb 2 2012, 02:12 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 31 2012, 04:38 PM)
ave_20:
» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Basically the liquidator is stepping into the shoes of the developer and is taking over all affairs of the developer. The 2% would be to cover their expenses in running the show. The liquidator's job is to clear off the assets and liabilites of the developer at the lowest cost possible. As such, they are indirectly asking the poor purchasers/owners to bear the burden of costs with them.

This is where you need to check with the Joint Management Body (JMB) of your flat and find out what their stand is. All residents have to be united in their stand. No point if you pay and your neighbour doesn't pay.

In fact, what tehe JMB ought to do is to write formally to the liquidator and ask the basis of such fees and for them to justify the law which allows them to charge the purchasers for it. Why should the purchasers bear the costs on behalf of the developer when all dues have been paid to the developer already?

With regard to the documents - how come the trail of documents is not complete? If property without title, the trail of Deed of Assignments (DOA) and Deed of Receipt n Reassignment (DRR) must be complete from day 1 until yourself. Only then is the beneficial interest in the property properly passed on from one party to another. If one document is missing, the trail is broken. Did you lawyer give you the complete set? Did you misplace it? Or perhaps it was not handed over to you via oversight? This is urgent and you need to check it. The reason why the Liq is asking from you all this is because the developer must've packed up and left town without leaving any proper records!

Your house will not be auctioned because you bought by cash. That person is talking rubbish.

A letter of disclaimer must've been issued by the end-financier way back to the first purchaser/purchaser's financier. So there's nothing to worry about.

It is not true that you cannot sell your house without strata title. How did you obtain ownership in the first place (plus the previous purchasers before you) if all the while, strata title is not out? Don't worry about that.
*
Thank you very much for clarifications. I have asked around about the 2% liquidator fee, looks like none of my neighbours are going to pay this. As for the documents, I think I have all of them liao smile.gif
TSdariofoo
post Feb 2 2012, 05:17 PM

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QUOTE(TkPerak @ Feb 2 2012, 10:36 AM)
Just wonder is LoI really a legal binding document. What is the stand or step to take if the buyer want the deal go through?
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I've already explained in detail much earlier to your questions above as you've asked them. Please go through it again. icon_rolleyes.gif
TkPerak
post Feb 2 2012, 06:19 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 2 2012, 05:17 PM)
I've already explained in detail much earlier to your questions above as you've asked them. Please go through it again.  icon_rolleyes.gif
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Hi Dario,

Ok. Thanks
dsugums
post Feb 2 2012, 08:35 PM

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Just wondering if anyone can help me. I am selling my property and engaged a lawyer to handle the sales on behalf of me since I am away overseas. The buyer already appointed their own lawyer to handle the S&P.

Here is the breakdown of the bill they ask me to settle before my lawyer proceed:-


BREAKDOWN OF DISBURSEMENT & LEGAL FEES

RM
RM

LEGAL FEES

1. Consent to Transfer

DISBURSEMENT

1. Location Plan
2. Official Land Search
3. Filing Consent
4. Registration for Consent
5. Transportation
6. Miscellaneous
7. Fax & Postage
8. Services tax 6%

TOTAL :- Ringgit Malaysia Six Hundred Ninety Eight Only.



BREAKDOWN OF DISBURSEMENT & LEGAL FEES

LEGAL FEES

1. Discharge of Charge RM300-00
-------------------------------------------



DISBURSEMENT

1. Stamp Duty – Discharge of Charge RM 10-00
2. Registration – Discharge of Charge RM 60-00
3. Transportation RM 50-00
4. Miscellaneous & Postage RM 50-00
5. Services Tax (6%) RM 18-00 RM188-00
-------------------------------------------
TOTAL: Ringgit Malaysia Four Hundred And Eighty Eight Only. RM488-00




LEGAL FEES

Professional fees conducting the sale (including drafting, perusing, vetting and completing the instrument of transfer)
of the sale.


DISBURSEMENT

1. Stamping SPA
2. Stamp Duty for Transfer* (subject to assessment notice)
3. Adjudication
4. Registration Transfer
5. Land Search
6. Bankruptcy Search
7. Courier Charges (according to the bill) advance
8. Affirmation – Statutory Declaration
9. Transportation
10. Miscellaneous & Postage
11. Service Tax 6%



TOTAL :- Ringgit Malaysia: Two Thousand Four Hundred
Seventy Three Only.




In total I need to pay RM 3659 just to sell the house. I was thinking it will be only costing me about RM1200 just to do the transfer and discharge! Any one can figure out if the rate quoted is reassonable?





sharpeye
post Feb 2 2012, 11:18 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 31 2012, 08:40 AM)
I do not know what is provided for in your SPA, so what advice I can give is based on common practice.

Under normal circumstances, you don't have to provide the date of payment. The completion date and extended completion date, which can be easily deduced from the SPA is sufficient. Why don't you use that? Your lawyer can issue such a letter, but to get one from the bank is close to impossible as it is not their concern and they won't issue such letter.

In any event, unless your SPA allows the vendor to demand for such letter before he releases the documents, he basically can't do so. His attitude will only extend the completion date of the SPA, and this prejudices him as he would not get his balance purchase price until this is resolved.

Under normal circumstances, the bank has to give an undertaking to the vendor that it will release the loan. Once that undertaking is given, there is no reason for the vendor to hold the documents. He has a certain number of days to hand it over to your lawyer. Once that deadline is missed, the completion date is extended.

I'm assuming that the vendor is not represented? You did not mention. If so, best to advice your lawyer to speak/write to the vendor. Or perhaps try to speak to the real estate agent and see if he can drill some sense into the vendor's head. Perhaps the vendor does not understand that what he is doing is only delaying things to his detriment.
*
Hi thanks for answering my question..it is very helpful.. the vendor finally hand over the documents..
I have another question though..
My deadline (delivery date) should be on 15 January but bcos of some problem at the bank last time, my snp lawyer only receive the undertaking letter on 16 Jan
so now the delivery date is extended for 1 month until 15 February.
becos everything can only be proceed after we got all the documents from the vendor, what happen if the extended delivery date is missed? do i have the right to ask for compensation or otherwise?

thanks again..

TSdariofoo
post Feb 2 2012, 11:19 PM

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dsugums:

Where's the itemised breakdown for each expense or fee? How much is the selling price?

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Feb 2 2012, 11:20 PM
TSdariofoo
post Feb 2 2012, 11:22 PM

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QUOTE(sharpeye @ Feb 2 2012, 11:18 PM)
Hi thanks for answering my question..it is very helpful.. the vendor finally hand over the documents..
I have another question though..
My deadline (delivery date) should be on 15 January but bcos of some problem at the bank last time, my snp lawyer only receive the undertaking letter on 16  Jan
so now the delivery date is extended for 1 month until 15 February.
becos everything can only be proceed after we got all the documents from the vendor, what happen if the extended delivery date is missed? do i have the right to ask for compensation or otherwise?

thanks again..
*
The extended completion date is for your benefit already. The vendor suffers for that as he needs to wait longer to get his money.

If you miss the extended completion date, you would have to pay late penalty interest to the vendor, as you need more time to pay him the balance purchase price.

That's how it works. nod.gif
sharpeye
post Feb 3 2012, 12:10 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 2 2012, 11:22 PM)
The extended completion date is for your benefit already. The vendor suffers for that as he needs to wait longer to get his money.

If you miss the extended completion date, you would have to pay late penalty interest to the vendor, as you need more time to pay him the balance purchase price.

That's how it works.  nod.gif
*
thanks for the prompt reply..

wow.. i still need to pay the penalty..even they are the one who delaying the process.. i guess i need to speed up the payment process...
how many days normally it will take for the bank to come out with cheque after all the documents have been submitted to them?

thanks again..
Milo_O
post Feb 3 2012, 01:23 AM

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Hi dariofoo,
May i know what is private caveat (PC) ?
How does it works and how does it helps the buyer ?
What does it do and what it is function for ?

Thanks.

dsugums
post Feb 3 2012, 07:41 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 2 2012, 11:19 PM)
dsugums:

Where's the itemised breakdown for each expense or fee? How much is the selling price?
*
Hi Dario

House selling price is RM220K

Here is the breakdown.

1. Consent to Transfer RM 300

DISBURSEMENT

1. Location Plan RM 30
2. Official Land Search RM 50
3. Filing Consent RM 100
4. Registration for Consent RM 40
5. Transportation RM 50
6. Miscellaneous RM 50
7. Fax & Postage RM 50
8. Services tax 6% RM 18


Total: RM698

-------------------------------------------------------------

Discharge of Charge RM300



DISBURSEMENT

1. Stamp Duty – Discharge of Charge RM 10-00
2. Registration – Discharge of Charge RM 60-00
3. Transportation RM 50-00
4. Miscellaneous & Postage RM 50-00
5. Services Tax (6%) RM 18-00

Total RM488-00

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


LEGAL FEES

Professional fees conducting the sale (including drafting, perusing, vetting and completing the instrument of transfer)
of the sale. RM 1990


DISBURSEMENT

1. Stamping SPA
2. Stamp Duty for Transfer* (subject to assessment notice)
3. Adjudication
4. Registration Transfer
5. Land Search RM20
6. Bankruptcy Search RM24
7. Courier Charges (according to the bill) advance RM200
8. Affirmation – Statutory Declaration RM20
9. Transportation RM50
10. Miscellaneous & Postage RM50
11. Service Tax 6% RM119.40

Total RM2473



GRAND TOTAL = 3659



Hope this helps. I am not sure if this is reasonable charges for selling house at RM220K


Thanks

Cheers
ziafdhom
post Feb 3 2012, 12:54 PM

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Dear all,

I just bought a subsale property, a double storey houses.

When i was informed that everything is cleared by my snp lawyer, I was only given house key. Nothing black and white mentioned everything is settled.

I start to change bill name for electricity, syabas, indah water and assesment (cukai pintu). But I have difficulty on quit rent. I was informed by the officer of pejabat tanah, they will need a lot of documents when submitting the ownership transfer form.

Just wondering whether this process should taken by owner or lawyer? If lawyer, which lawyer? Snp lawyer or loan lawyer..? Since i have been using different lawyer for snp and loan.

I raised this issue to both lawyers and it seems they are pointing each other for this portion.

Really need your help and advise for this issue.

Many thanks!!!!

kennielee
post Feb 3 2012, 04:29 PM

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Dear all:
Regarding landlord tenant dispute, i have some questions about distress order. If the value of seized goods from tenant is not enough to cover overdue rent (for example the tenant may have moved all his goods beforehand), can the same disress warrant be used to seize tenants other assets like bank deposits or goods at other premise? or I have to do the whole process of serving summons and obtaining judment and writ or seizure?
My problem is that my errant tenant has kind of disappeared from my property leaving behind damages to my house, unpaid bills and rental arrears(the deposits hardly can cover the outstandings) while the tenancy still has 6 months to go. Me is still trying to figure out how best to take back vacant possession and cover my losses. your kind reply is much appreciated. my understanding is that distress act is the best remedies ?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 3 2012, 04:42 PM

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QUOTE(sharpeye @ Feb 3 2012, 12:10 AM)
thanks for the prompt reply..

wow.. i still need to pay the penalty..even they are the one who delaying the process.. i guess i need to speed up the payment process...
how many days normally it will take for the bank to come out with cheque after all the documents have been submitted to them?

thanks again..
*
I think you misunderstood me,bro. Any delay by the vendor will extend the completion date for you.

Example:

SPA Date: 01/11/2011
Comp Date: 01/02/2012
Ext Comp DatE: 01/03/2012

- If you pay the balance purchase price on/before the Comp Date, there's no penalty.
- If you pay after the Comp Date but before the Ext Comp Date, you pay penalty.
- After Ext Comp Date, the vendor can either extend it further, or choose to terminate the SPA. But it is unlikely to be terminated in your case as parties have progressed quite far in the deal. It would be tedious and unreasonable to the vendor to terminate it.

Assuming tha there is a 20 days delay on the part of the vendor, the Comp Date above will be adjusted (+20 days).

New
Comp Date: 21/02/2012
Ext Comp DatE: 21/03/2012

So instead of 01/02/12, you get another 20 days to complete the transaction.

As such, no late penalty interest has to be paid, unless you fail to pay the balance purchase price by 21/02/12. On 22/02 onwards, late penalty interest would be payable calculated on daily rest until full and final payment.

Ok?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 3 2012, 04:45 PM

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QUOTE(Milo_O @ Feb 3 2012, 01:23 AM)
Hi dariofoo,
May i know what is private caveat (PC) ?
How does it works and how does it helps the buyer ?
What does it do and what it is function for ?

Thanks.
*
There was a previous question on caveat posed by kobebyrant. It's in the early pages of this thread. Do check it out. I answered in detail there but I guess it wasn't good enough coz the guy never came back. sweat.gif

Check it out first,bro. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Feb 3 2012, 04:51 PM

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QUOTE(ziafdhom @ Feb 3 2012, 12:54 PM)
Just wondering whether this process should taken by owner or lawyer? If lawyer, which lawyer? Snp lawyer or loan lawyer..? Since i have been using different lawyer for snp and loan.
*
Unless something else is stated in the SPA, the duty to change name is always upon the purchaser personally. Some law firms will do it for you but they will charge you for it in the bill itself.

TSdariofoo
post Feb 3 2012, 05:00 PM

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QUOTE(kennielee @ Feb 3 2012, 04:29 PM)
Dear all:
Regarding landlord tenant dispute, i have some questions about distress order. If the value of seized goods from tenant is not enough to cover overdue rent (for example the tenant may have moved all his goods beforehand), can the same disress warrant be used to seize tenants other assets like bank deposits or goods at other premise? or I have to do the whole process of serving summons and obtaining judment and writ or seizure?
My problem is that my errant tenant has kind of disappeared from my property leaving behind damages to my house, unpaid bills  and rental arrears(the deposits hardly can cover the outstandings) while the tenancy still has 6 months to go. Me is still trying to figure out how best to take back vacant possession and cover my losses. your kind reply is much appreciated. my understanding is that distress act is the best remedies ?
*
The distress order can only be served once and it is for the items at the premises at the time the bailiff attends at the premises to do an inventory. Then a public auction will be held. All proceeds from the auction, less court costs and fees, would be paid to you.

If the amount recovered is not sufficient, you have to sue for the outstanding amount in a fresh civil suit. Once you obtain judgment, then you can choose how you want to enforce it:

a) Writ of seizure and sale - same concept as distress, but this would be at the tenant's new address.
b) Garnishee proceedings - freeze his bank account, and attach monies from the bank account to be paid to you. For this, you need to know the bank where his active account is and that he has monies in it.
c) Judgment debtor summons - you need to serve this personally on the tenant and he would be compelled to attend Court to be questioned as to his income, assets, liabilities and how much he can pay back to you, most probably on an installment basis.

d) If sum due is more than RM30K - you can go for bankruptcy.

That's basically it.

It's not easy to sue an individual and recover damages from that person. Service of documents will be a hassle, and be prepared to just end up with a paper judgment as the tenant can just ignore you by not attending court or refuse service. If he refuses or if you can't locate his address, you would need to serve it by substituted service (newspapers/court notice board) where you will end up paying more legal fees and costs for it.


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TSdariofoo
post Feb 3 2012, 05:05 PM

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dsugums:
» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Fees are alright but the bill is normally combined and not separated. I mean disbursements. They can't charge you RM50 for miscellaneous x 3. It ought to be once only. RM200 for courier seems expensive. If you want to tumpang the purchaser's lawyer you would only be paying for discharge of charge and consent. If you think that you don't need to be represented then that option is open to you.

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SUSleechers
post Feb 4 2012, 02:03 AM

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Dario.

This is not entirely on hire purchase/ property problem but i post up here and hopefully you can give ways on how go deal with it. This problem actually faced by my friend

My friend actually will end up his rent this february (end of the month) and according to agreement final month will need not to pay and landlord will take one month deposit as payment.

However my friend mistakenly bank in the rental for february and now he already alert the landlord and requested her to refund back the money. She will return the money upon surrenderin the key and if any things that need to be fix she will deduct from the money. My friend disagree with it as it is not in the agreement at all. And fyi during tenancy period the house was sold to current landlord, and my friend did rent out from previous owner/landlord. And according to current landlord the she did not took the deposit from previous owner, however she did agree to my friend not to pay for final month, which in agreement the deposit will be render as the final payment.

Now another problem which occur about how this fiance of landlord raise up voices and ask my friend to get out of the house immidiately, which is impossible and improper since he is a family man with wife and child. I was there when this inciden happened and i am not happy the way my friend was treated.

My question is

1. Is it proper for landlord to deduct the money which was mistakenly bank in by my friend? Isnt it right for her to return back the money

2. About the threat from her fiance, what should we do to deal about it? He did not said anything obvious like wants to beat up, chop off etc but he did raised voices and intimidate and challenge my friend.

3. Please advice on how to deal with this whole scenario. If anyone have opinions on this please share. Thanks.
joey7559
post Feb 4 2012, 04:58 PM

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Hi Dario

I just bought a condo at KL. At the stage of applying bank loan. Could you kindly advice the proper procedure of transferring land titile, S&P etc? It is currently tenanted too. Anything else should i need the lawyer to help me settle in order to take over the condo and tenant appropriately? what is the estimate charges a lawyer would impose on this kind of services?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 5 2012, 12:10 AM

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QUOTE(leechers @ Feb 4 2012, 02:03 AM)
Dario.

This is not entirely on hire purchase/ property problem but i post up here and hopefully you can give ways on how go deal with it. This problem actually faced by my friend

My friend actually will end up his rent this february (end of the month) and according to agreement final month will need not to pay and landlord will take one month deposit as payment.

However my friend mistakenly bank in the rental for february and now he already alert the landlord and requested her to refund back the money. She will return the money upon surrenderin the key and if any things that need to be fix she will deduct from the money. My friend disagree with it as it is not in the agreement at all. And fyi during tenancy period the house was sold to current landlord, and my friend did rent out from previous owner/landlord. And according to current landlord the she did not took the deposit from previous owner, however she did agree to my friend not to pay for final month, which in agreement the deposit will be render as the final payment.

Now another problem which occur about how this fiance of landlord raise up voices and ask my friend to get out of the house immidiately, which is impossible and improper since he is a family man with wife and child. I was there when this inciden happened and i am not happy the way my friend was treated.

My question is

1. Is it proper for landlord to deduct the money which was mistakenly bank in by my friend? Isnt it right for her to return back the money

2. About the threat from her fiance, what should we do to deal about it? He did not said anything obvious like wants to beat up, chop off etc but he did raised voices and intimidate and challenge my friend.

3. Please advice on how to deal with this whole scenario. If anyone have opinions on this please share. Thanks.
*
1. If it is contrary to the tenancy agreement, of course it is wrong. The landlord has to return it.

2. Didn't lodge a police report? I can't see how you can take it any further. Defamation seems a bit far fetched.

3. Try diplomacy to get back the excess payment made. Has keys been handed over? When handing over keys, make sure that landlord inspects everything and make sure that there is no defect whatsoever, so that no issues will be raised once keys has been handed over to the landlord. Be present when the inspection is done. After that, anything that goes wrong has to be borne by the landlord, not by the tenant anymore.

If the landlord doesn't want to return it, the option would be to see a lawyer and send out a letter of demand.

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 5 2012, 12:14 AM

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QUOTE(joey7559 @ Feb 4 2012, 04:58 PM)
Hi Dario

I just bought a condo at KL. At the stage of applying bank loan. Could you kindly advice the proper procedure of transferring land titile, S&P etc? It is currently tenanted too. Anything else should i need the lawyer to help me settle in order to take over the condo and tenant appropriately? what is the estimate charges a lawyer would impose on this kind of services?
*
Everything will be provided for in the SPA which your lawyer will draw up for you. If you want to know the process you can always read it up. The process is different for different types of properties, titles and if the property is encumbered. Also differs if there are restrictions in the title.

With regard to the charges, it is based on the SPA price - for your SPA lawyer - as well as the loan sum - for your loan lawyer. You can use the calculator at the first page to calculate the legal fees. It is fixed.

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ultraman29
post Feb 5 2012, 09:55 AM

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hi,

can u advise the proper way to evict a tenant? assuming tenancy agmt clearly states a specific date of payment per mth, and that clause has been breached.

can we
a) lodge police report for trespassing
b) terminate the utilities/deactivate access cards
c) lock up the premise

what is also the procedure i need prior to getting a court order for eviction?

thank you!
TSdariofoo
post Feb 5 2012, 12:45 PM

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QUOTE(ultraman29 @ Feb 5 2012, 09:55 AM)
hi,

can u advise the proper way to evict a tenant? assuming tenancy agmt clearly states a specific date of payment per mth, and that clause has been breached.

can we
a) lodge police report for trespassing
b) terminate the utilities/deactivate access cards
c) lock up the premise

what is also the procedure i need prior to getting a court order for eviction?

thank you!
*
You can lodge a police report but it is not to state that he is a trespasser. Such persons are called ''tenants holding over" and not trespasser. A trespasser is one who never had permission to be in the premises, for example a drug addict who breaks into an empty unit and occupies it.

Basically you need to serve a one-month's notice of eviction to that person. Once that is done and he does not move out, you go to Court and get an eviction order. The bailiff will assist you to execute the order and evict the tenant.

That would be the legal way to do it.

You cannot, in any circumstances:
a) Cut off utilities; or
b) Lock up the premises

as those actions are deemed to be self-help which is not allowed in Malaysia. You can be sued by the tenant. The fact that he owes you rental is different and he has a right to claim damages from you if he suffers any loss as a result of your actions.

A lot of landlord opt to use those methods to force the tenant to move out, but if you're lucky and the tenant obliges, then all is good and you save time and money. However, it can backfire on you. In version 1 of this thread I shared a real life example of a tenant who counter-sued a landlord who terminated the utilities of a house due to non-payment of rent. The tenant also managed to get an injunction against the landlord to compel the landlord to re-connect the utilities. The landlord also had to pay costs to the tenant. Of course, the landlord was not deprived of his right to claim for double-rental as the tenant was holding over even after notice was served on him, but the injunction allowed the tenant to continue to be in the premises until the suit to determine if the landlord has to pay any damages has been heard and disposed off. In the end, parties reached a settlement whereby the tenant moved out and the landlord had to waive almost all of the outstanding rental and the landlord had to pay a bit of costs to the tenant.

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ultraman29
post Feb 5 2012, 01:53 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 5 2012, 12:45 PM)
You can lodge a police report but it is not to state that he is a trespasser. Such persons are called ''tenants holding over" and not trespasser. A trespasser is one who never had permission to be in the premises, for example a drug addict who breaks into an empty unit and occupies it.

Basically you need to serve a one-month's notice of eviction to that person. Once that is done and he does not move out, you go to Court and get an eviction order. The bailiff will assist you to execute the order and evict the tenant.

That would be the legal way to do it.

You cannot, in any circumstances:
a) Cut off utilities; or
b) Lock up the premises

as those actions are deemed to be self-help which is not allowed in Malaysia. You can be sued by the tenant. The fact that he owes you rental is different and he has a right to claim damages from you if he suffers any loss as a result of your actions.

A lot of landlord opt to use those methods to force the tenant to move out, but if you're lucky and the tenant obliges, then all is good and you save time and money. However, it can backfire on you. In version 1 of this thread I shared a real life example of a tenant who counter-sued a landlord who terminated the utilities of a house due to non-payment of rent. The tenant also managed to get an injunction against the landlord to compel the landlord to re-connect the utilities. The landlord also had to pay costs to the tenant. Of course, the landlord was not deprived of his right to claim for double-rental as the tenant was holding over even after notice was served on him, but the injunction allowed the tenant to continue to be in the premises until the suit to determine if the landlord has to pay any damages has been heard and disposed off. In the end, parties reached a settlement whereby the tenant moved out and the landlord had to waive almost all of the outstanding rental and the landlord had to pay a bit of costs to the tenant.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
thank you for your reply. what is the use of a police report then? what if there is a clause which mentions that the tenant is in breach of the tenancy and is then a trespasser? would that help?

for the utilities, would it also help if say we hv a clause which authorises the landlord to cut off the utilities in the event of non payment of rental? would this gv the landlord the right? notworthy.gif

shingrey
post Feb 5 2012, 06:08 PM

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deleted---------------

This post has been edited by shingrey: Feb 6 2012, 01:24 AM
sapphire_rock
post Feb 6 2012, 07:06 AM

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Hi Dario,

Happy Chap Goh Mei !!!!

Yes my sis agreed to it. Where to get get Form 14A ? I have check with the bank, but they told me to get a lawyer to settle issues with the remover of name from the title first.

Then only my lawyer can give instruction to the bank to amend the rest of the procedures.

I understand that anything the involve the land/title authority will need plenty of $$.

What should i do now?

Thanks



QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 29 2012, 01:23 AM)
Your sis has to be agreeable to it. If she's ok, it's just her signature on the Form 14A to transfer which is needed. Issue is only with the bank - you need to check with them if they can agree to the transfer without the need to refinance. The bank as the chargee has to agree to the transfer subject to charge.

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post Feb 6 2012, 03:50 PM

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QUOTE(sapphire_rock @ Feb 6 2012, 07:06 AM)
What should i do now?
*
Check with the bank first as to whether you require you to refinance and transfer OR can do transfer subject to charge. If refinance also they might require you to appoint their panel law firm to do it. So check with the bank first before appointing a lawyer.
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post Feb 6 2012, 03:57 PM

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QUOTE(ultraman29 @ Feb 5 2012, 01:53 PM)
thank you for your reply. what is the use of a police report then? what if there is a clause which mentions that the tenant is in breach of the tenancy and is then a trespasser? would that help?

for the utilities, would it also help if say we hv a clause which authorises the landlord to cut off the utilities in the event of non payment of rental? would this gv the landlord the right? notworthy.gif
*
Police report would be for record purposes. Of course the police would not assist you to evict the tenant as it is out of their jurisdiction.

Yes for utilities you can have such a clause. But there must be a limit in which you must set. Perhaps not exceeding RM200/month outstanding for following month, or along those lines.

In a standard tenancy agreement there would be a clause which allows the landlord to re-enter and take VP of the premises. However, in actual practice, that is difficult to do as the tenant would definitely place another padlock and furthermore, there are his items and belongings in the premises which he may make the landlord accountable for in the event the landlord effects re-entry in the tenant's absence. Even things which do not exist can be claimed to be stolen by the landlord during re-entry. Therein lies the difficulty.
F3RAL HO
post Feb 7 2012, 01:59 PM

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Dear Bro & Sis Lawyers,

Sorry to barge in on any current discussion, but i got a case which i really need help. Really hope dear bro & sis lawyers could share your expertise and guide me.

I was referred by a lowyat member onto this thread after i've posted my question on Finance, Business and Investment House. Previous Thread

Anyhow, my relative is sued for bankruptcy on year 2009 (he is still not bankrupt at the moment, but blacklisted), he transferred his property (own house) to his sister in the same year 2009. I've heard that the official assignees or government have the power to take back the property of the bankrupt (even after transferred or sold to third party). Is it true?

Also, there is a duration of 2/5 years, why is there 2 different durations?
Urban
post Feb 8 2012, 03:09 AM

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Hi dario,

I dont know if you remember me a few month ago. I bought a property from auction. I bought a apartment property. Does he consider as trespassing after the notice i gave him to evict?He is a trouble maker in the apartment. Everyone want him out. Is there anyway to evict him without going to court?
lyt25_1234
post Feb 8 2012, 09:45 AM

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Hi Dario,

I have the dumbest question and I hope you can be patience enough to answer them.

Recently I bought a sub-sale house and right now I have to undergo applying new accounts for TNB, Water, and Majlis Perbandaran for the Cukai Pintu.

The question is for TNB account, I need to give a copy of the S&P together with RM10 stamp duty. But why for Water and Majlis Perbandaran I don't need the RM10 stamp duty???


Mlchoo
post Feb 8 2012, 10:25 AM

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I need advice from all the sifus here.

My tenant wishes to break lease. Its a 2 yrs lease and they have occupied for about 10 months. Can I know what I can claim from them besides forfeiting the 2 months deposit. Must I return the utilities deposit? Must they give 1 months notice before termination? Can I claim back the commission paid to the agent (pro rated)?

Any other advice is most appreciated.
Thanks.
mjn322
post Feb 8 2012, 12:14 PM

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Hi Dario,
Need some advise. My husband and I bought a service condominium back in 2003, but the project was put on hold until it was recently revived. Now it is nearing completion. At this stage, my bank loan is still not fully disbursed. However, I've just received a call from a real estate agent stating that she has a ready buyer who is interested in my unit and is willing to accept my selling price. I am keen to sell my apartment, as we already have another house (have given up on waiting for this apartment), but I hope you can advise us as to the implications and costs of selling my apartment at this stage of completion (ie. 80% completed and without CF/title). Are we liable for anything? Is it legal to do so? What do we need to do to ensure that we do not get caught in a situation where we are liable until the new buyer gets the keys to the apartment? In my thinking, he must be ready to take on anything that will happen from the time we sell the apartment to him until he gets the keys from the developer. We don't want to get roped into any disputes he has with the developer months after we sell the unit to him. What is the legal standpoint in this? Hope you can advise us in this matter, as we have no experience in this sort of matter at all. Thanks a lot.
SUSjalsrix
post Feb 8 2012, 03:47 PM

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Dariofoo


Is it possible to transfer the car park from one apartment unit to another apartment unit ?

Both apartments have the same owner.


What is the cost of transfer if no S&P is involved ?



This post has been edited by jalsrix: Feb 8 2012, 03:49 PM
SUSjalsrix
post Feb 8 2012, 03:49 PM

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Added on February 8, 2012, 3:48 pm
QUOTE(Mlchoo @ Feb 8 2012, 10:25 AM)
I need advice from all the sifus here.

My tenant wishes to break lease. Its a 2 yrs lease and they have occupied for about 10 months. Can I know what I can claim from them besides forfeiting the 2 months deposit. Must I return the utilities deposit? Must they give 1 months notice before termination? Can I claim back the commission paid to the agent (pro rated)?

Any other advice is most appreciated.
Thanks.
*
You can only forfeit the 2 months deposit.

You must return the utilities deposit.

The agent will not pay you back anything because it is your tenancy agreement between you and tenant.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 8 2012, 05:20 PM

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Dear all,

Sorry for the delay in replying to your queries. Been busy. Will answer all queries tomorrow morning.

Cheers!
gallileo
post Feb 8 2012, 09:41 PM

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Hi Dario,

Need your advise please on usage of 'Bumiputra Status' when purchasing a new property.

I have 'bumi status' and I used it to purchase a condo for the 7% bumi discount. Now I want to do a WILL of my property and discovered that am not allow to WILL it to a non-bumi.

I only have 'bumi status' and am not a Muslim and this status ends with me. I have been advise to check my S&P to see if there is any mention that the property I purchased in a bumi lot but it didn't mention anything.

I called the developer but the person who answered my call is not aware of 'bumi status'.

Can you please advise me my standing, please.

Thank you so much


TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 08:23 AM

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QUOTE(Urban @ Feb 8 2012, 03:09 AM)
Does he consider as trespassing after the notice i gave him to evict?
*
Please read post #347 above.


QUOTE(Urban @ Feb 8 2012, 03:09 AM)
Is there anyway to evict him without going to court?
*
You mean evict him illegally? sweat.gif
TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 09:06 AM

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QUOTE(F3RAL HO @ Feb 7 2012, 01:59 PM)
Dear Bro & Sis Lawyers,

Sorry to barge in on any current discussion, but i got a case which i really need help. Really hope dear bro & sis lawyers could share your expertise and guide me.

I was referred by a lowyat member onto this thread after i've posted my question on Finance, Business and Investment House. Previous Thread

Anyhow, my relative is sued for bankruptcy on year 2009 (he is still not bankrupt at the moment, but blacklisted), he transferred his property (own house) to his sister in the same year 2009. I've heard that the official assignees or government have the power to take back the property of the bankrupt (even after transferred or sold to third party). Is it true?

Also, there is a duration of 2/5 years, why is there 2 different durations?
*
Welcome. This is an open thread for anyone to drop by and pose questions, so don't need to to say sorry to barge in for anything. Open discussions are always welcome. nod.gif

Now, a person commits an act of bankruptcy in the following scenarios as stated in Section 3 of the Bankruptcy Act 1967:

3. (1) A debtor commits an act of bankruptcy in each of the
following cases:
(a) if in Malaysia or elsewhere he makes a conveyance or
assignment of his property to a trustee or trustees for the
benefit of his creditors generally;

(b) if in Malaysia or elsewhere he makes a fraudulent
conveyance, gift, delivery or transfer of his property or
of any part thereof;

© if in Malaysia or elsewhere he makes any conveyance or
transfer of his property or of any part thereof, or creates
any charge thereon which would under this or any other
written law for the time being in force be void as a
fraudulent preference if he were adjudged bankrupt;

(d) if with intent to defeat or delay his creditors he does any
of the following things:

(i) departs out of Malaysia or being out of Malaysia
remains out of Malaysia;

(ii) departs from his dwelling-house or otherwise
absents himself, or begins to keep house or closes
his place of business; or

(iii) submits collusively or fraudulently to an adverse
judgment or order for the payment of money;
Bankruptcy 15

(e) if execution issued against him has been levied by seizure
of his property under process in an action or in any civil
proceeding in the High Court, Sessions Court or Magistrates
Court where the judgment, including costs, is for an
amount of one thousand ringgit or more;

(f) if he files in the court a declaration of his inability to pay
his debts or presents a bankruptcy petition against himself;

(g) if he gives notice to any of his creditors that he has
suspended or that he is about to suspend payment of his
debts;

(h) if he makes to any two or more of his creditors, not being
partners, an offer of composition with his creditors or a
proposal for a scheme of arrangement of his affairs, and
such offer or proposal is not followed by the registration
within fourteen days thereafter of a deed of arrangement
with his creditors, in accordance with the rules for the
time being in force for the registration of deeds of
arrangement under this Act;

(i) if a creditor has obtained a final judgment or final order
against him for any amount and execution thereon not
having been stayed has served on him in Malaysia, or by
leave of the court elsewhere, a bankruptcy notice under
this Act requiring him to pay the judgment debt or sum
ordered to be paid in accordance with the terms of the
judgment or order with interest quantified up to the date
of issue of the bankruptcy notice, or to secure or compound
for it to the satisfaction of the creditor or the court; and
he does not within seven days after service of the notice
in case the service is effected in Malaysia, and in case
the service is effected elsewhere then within the time
limited in that behalf by the order giving leave to effect
the service, either comply with the requirements of the
notice or satisfy the court that he has a counterclaim, set
off or cross demand which equals or exceeds the amount
of the judgment debt or sum ordered to be paid and
which he could not set up in the action in which the
judgment was obtained or in the proceedings in which
the order was obtained:
Provided that for the purposes of this paragraph and
of section 5 any person who is for the time being entitled
to enforce a final judgment or final order shall be deemed
to be a creditor who has obtained a final judgment or
final order;

(j) if the officer charged with the execution of a writ of
attachment or other process makes a return that the
debtor was possessed of no property liable to seizure;
and for the purposes of this paragraph the date when the
writ is lodged with the officer shall be deemed to be the
date of the act of bankruptcy.


In your relative's case, the act of bankruptcy referred to would be in clause © - fraudulent transfer. Why fraudulent? Because it was done clearly to defeat the interest of his creditors, who would be entitled to the proceeds of an auction of the property had it still been registered in his name.

As such, such transfer would void and can be set aside by the Director-General of Insolvency.

With regard to the doctrine of relation back, I am not aware of any duration of 2/5 years in relation to voidance of transfer in such scenarios.

The doctrine of relation back is provided for in Section 47 of the Act:


Relation back of Director General of Insolvency’s title
47. (1) The bankruptcy of a debtor, whether the same takes place
on the debtor’s own petition or upon that of a creditor, shall be
deemed to have relation back to and commence at the time of the
act of bankruptcy being committed on which a receiving order is
made against him, or if the bankrupt is proved to have committed
more acts of bankruptcy than one to have relation back to and to
commence at the time of the first of the acts of bankruptcy proved
to have been committed by the bankrupt within six months next
preceding the date of the presentation of the bankruptcy petition


The assets of a bankrupt are deemed to be under the control of the Director General of Insolvency [DGI]. As such, the DGI has title over it.

Section 47 provides that the bankruptcy of a debtor can be related back to the date of the act of bankruptcy committed by that debtor. In your relative's case, it would be on the date he transferred the title in favour of another relative to defeat the interest of his creditors.

It also provides, in simple terms, that if there are more than 1 act of bankruptcy, any act done to defeat the title of the DGI can be related back to 6 months before the presentation of the bankruptcy petition by a creditor.

Property is not limited to real property. It includes others as well. Definition of property in the Act is as follows:

“property” includes money, goods, things in action, land and
every description of property, whether real or personal and whether
situate in Malaysia or elsewhere, also obligations, easements and
every description of estate, interest and profit, present or future,
vested or contingent, arising out of or incident to property as
above defined


Hope the above helps. If there is anyone else who would like to contribute another opinion backed by legal provisions, you are most welcome to correct my opinion as above. notworthy.gif

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 09:09 AM

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QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Feb 8 2012, 09:45 AM)
I have the dumbest question and I hope you can be patience enough to answer them.
*
There are no dumb questions. As the saying goes, "Malu berkayuh perahu hanyut, Malu bertanya sesat jalan". smile.gif

QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Feb 8 2012, 09:45 AM)
Recently I bought a sub-sale house and right now I have to undergo applying new accounts for TNB, Water, and Majlis Perbandaran for the Cukai Pintu.

The question is for TNB account, I need to give a copy of the S&P together with RM10 stamp duty. But why for Water and Majlis Perbandaran I don't need the RM10 stamp duty???
*
From what I know, there are no requirements to paste a RM10 stamp upon the forms for Water and Majlis respectively.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 09:12 AM

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QUOTE(Mlchoo @ Feb 8 2012, 10:25 AM)
I need advice from all the sifus here.

My tenant wishes to break lease. Its a 2 yrs lease and they have occupied for about 10 months. Can I know what I can claim from them besides forfeiting the 2 months deposit. Must I return the utilities deposit? Must they give 1 months notice before termination? Can I claim back the commission paid to the agent (pro rated)?

Any other advice is most appreciated.
Thanks.
*
Is there an agreement? If yes, then look at your agreement to see what is provided for in the event of termination. Some states that notice can be given for early termination, while others do not. So check and see what are the terms first.

Whether you can forfeit or not also depends on the agreement. Same goes for utilities.

With regard to the commission, I doubt if you can claim for that. The agent has done his job and the lessee's act has nothing to do with the agent, who is not privy to your agreement.

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 09:16 AM

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QUOTE(mjn322 @ Feb 8 2012, 12:14 PM)
Hi Dario,
Need some advise. My husband and I bought a service condominium back in 2003, but the project was put on hold until it was recently revived. Now it is nearing completion.  At this stage, my bank loan is still not fully disbursed. However, I've just received a call from a real estate agent stating that she has a ready buyer who is interested in my unit and is willing to accept my selling price. I am keen to sell my apartment, as we already have another house (have given up on waiting for this apartment), but I hope you can advise us as to the implications and costs of selling my apartment at this stage of completion (ie. 80% completed and without CF/title). Are we liable for anything? Is it legal to do so? What do we need to do to ensure that we do not get caught in a situation where we are liable until the new buyer gets the keys to the apartment? In my thinking, he must be ready to take on anything that will happen from the time we sell the apartment to him until he gets the keys from the developer. We don't want to get roped into any disputes he has with the developer months after we sell the unit to him. What is the legal standpoint in this? Hope you can advise us in this matter, as we have no experience in this sort of matter at all. Thanks a lot.
*
There is nothing to worry about. You can sell the property. No need to wait for CF/ strata title. Once the notice of assignment has been given to the developer, the records will be updated with the purchaser reflected as the owner of the premises. As such, the issue of "get roped into any disputes he has with the developer months after we sell the unit to him" no longer arises. You cease to be the legal and beneficial owner of the property upon the completion of the SPA.

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 09:19 AM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Feb 8 2012, 03:47 PM)
Dariofoo
Is it possible to transfer the car park from one apartment unit to another apartment unit ?

Both apartments have the same owner.
What is the cost of transfer if no S&P is involved ?
*
Normally a car park is an accessory parcel which comes allocated to a particular unit. It would be described in the SPA. You need to check with the developer as to their rules and regulations with regard to this. They would be able to advise you further.

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 09:32 AM

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QUOTE(gallileo @ Feb 8 2012, 09:41 PM)
I only have 'bumi status' and am not a Muslim and this status ends with me. I have been advise to check my S&P to see if there is any mention that the property I purchased in a bumi lot but it didn't mention anything.

I called the developer but the person who answered my call is not aware of 'bumi status'.
*
Bumi lot, bumi quota, bumi unit, bumi status.. all semantics but points to the same meaning - you can't transfer it to a non-bumi. Unless with the consent of the state authority, which is quite difficult to obtain.

You should check with the developer whether your unit is designated as bumi lot/bumi unit. They will have it in their records. Most probably it is, as you obtained the discount.

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This post has been edited by dariofoo: Feb 9 2012, 09:33 AM
mjn322
post Feb 9 2012, 10:37 AM

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Thank you Dario, you have put our minds at ease. Great thread you have here.. will be sure to tell my friends about this..
Mlchoo
post Feb 9 2012, 10:56 AM

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Thanks. Actually the TA only state that the 2 mths deposit will be forfeited but nothing on the utilities deposit and notice period. So do I need to return the utilities deposit?

Another question I have regarding housing loan. If loan is redeemed on the 15th, can the bank still charge interest for the full month? Shouldn't interest be up to only 15th? If bank insist this is their policy and this is not stated in the loan agreement, what can one do to claim back the 15 days of over charging? Thanks.

QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 9 2012, 09:12 AM)
Is there an agreement? If yes, then look at your agreement to see what is provided for in the event of termination. Some states that notice can be given for early termination, while others do not. So check and see what are the terms first.

Whether you can forfeit or not also depends on the agreement. Same goes for utilities.

With regard to the commission, I doubt if you can claim for that. The agent has done his job and the lessee's act has nothing to do with the agent, who is not privy to your agreement.

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This post has been edited by Mlchoo: Feb 9 2012, 10:58 AM
lyt25_1234
post Feb 9 2012, 03:58 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 9 2012, 09:09 AM)
There are no dumb questions. As the saying goes, "Malu berkayuh perahu hanyut, Malu bertanya sesat jalan".  smile.gif
From what I know, there are no requirements to paste a RM10 stamp upon the forms for Water and Majlis respectively.
*
Hehe, thanks for the quick reply, Dario! biggrin.gif

Okay, so any idea why the need for the RM10 stamp duty? Any reasons behind it? Is it for legal purposes to protect themselves, in case I sue TNB? biggrin.gif
Urban
post Feb 9 2012, 06:12 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 9 2012, 08:23 AM)
Please read post #347 above.
You mean evict him illegally?  sweat.gif
*
QUOTE
http://www.malaysianbar.org.my/conveyancing_practice/law_realty_tenancy_agreement.html

Recovery of possession

Even though there is a term of the tenancy agreement which allows the landlord to evict the tenant and/or to recover possession of the demised premises upon the nonpayment of rent, the Malaysian legal system is pro-tenant. The landlord is prohibited from evicting the tenant and/or to recover possession of the demised premises without a court order. However, even if the landlord manages to eventually evict the non-paying tenant, the landlord finds it difficult to recover unpaid rents.

Sometimes, unscrupulous tenants would suddenly leave the demised premises without informing the landlord. When the landlord breaks the lock to take possession of the demised premises, the landlord is then slapped with a civil suit claiming for an astronomical amount for the landlord’s purported “self-help”.

The current practice now is for the landlord to lodge a police report and break the lock in the presence of a police officer in order to avoid further complications. A prudent landlord would even take photos of the interior of the demised premises to ensure that the tenant would not later claim loss of properties.


i am guessing there are ways to evict him legally without needing to go to court? And im aware that cutting electric and going in self help. So are they are legal way to evict him other then court?

TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 10:05 PM

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QUOTE(Mlchoo @ Feb 9 2012, 10:56 AM)
Another question I have regarding housing loan. If loan is redeemed on the 15th, can the bank still charge interest for the full month? Shouldn't interest be up to only 15th? If bank insist this is their policy and this is not stated in the loan agreement, what can one do to claim back the 15 days of over charging? Thanks.
*
Not sure,mate. It has to be reflected in the loan agreement. Are you sure that nothing is stated there?

If you want to claim back, and if you think you have a good case, then you have to appoint a lawyer and sue the bank! Or you can act in person also and sue the bank. As a matter of principle, of course. icon_rolleyes.gif


QUOTE(Mlchoo @ Feb 9 2012, 10:56 AM)
Thanks. Actually the TA only state that the 2 mths deposit will be forfeited but nothing on the utilities deposit and notice period. So do I need to return the utilities deposit?
*
Yes you would but only after they provide you proof of full payment of utilities together when they hand over the keys to the unit back to you. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 10:12 PM

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QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Feb 9 2012, 03:58 PM)
Okay, so any idea why the need for the RM10 stamp duty? Any reasons behind it?
*
No idea,boss. Probably required to do so by the Government. Stamp duty is a form of taxation imposed by the Government. I doubt if TNB profits from it.

QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Feb 9 2012, 03:58 PM)
Is it for legal purposes to protect themselves, in case I sue TNB? biggrin.gif
*
The Stamp Act does provide that in order for a document whereupon it is mandatory for it to be stamped, it must be duly stamped before it can be marked as an exhibit (evidence) in Court.

The other party can object if a document (especially contracts) are not duly stamped.

However, it can still be marked subject to the Court allowing the party who is adducing to stamp it the next day (bear the penalty for it as well) and re-produce it as an exhibit.


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kobe8byrant
post Feb 9 2012, 10:16 PM

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hey dario, thanks for your reply on my queries quite a while back. but i have a couple of questions in response to your answer:

1. are all transactions for properties without individual title applicable under NLC and if not, what act?
2. is a lien same as a lienholder's caveat? if no, what is the difference?
and what is difference between personalty and realty lien?

3. with regards to stamp duty and principal/subsidiary stamp duty, i understand them by definition but when it comes to application, i am confused.

mind providing example how stamp duty is charged with the documents involved in a simple buying/selling of property transaction?

4. with regards to charge and assignment, what are the differences between legal and equitible assignments? as far as i have come across, i would assume banks only deal with legal charges and assignments,

5. not sure if related to property but how would pledge and hypothecation work?

6. last of all, if a registrar caveat is the most powerful among the caveats, why won't banks/parties go for it over private caveat?

eg: if i pay 10%, i go RC i can prevent transactions going through if presented but not registered documents.

and does registrar caveat give power to sell or oonly lienholder' caveat?
TQ

This post has been edited by kobe8byrant: Feb 9 2012, 10:18 PM
TSdariofoo
post Feb 9 2012, 10:19 PM

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QUOTE(Urban @ Feb 9 2012, 06:12 PM)
i am guessing there are ways to evict him legally without needing to go to court?
*
I suppose you're referring to this portion of the article in the Bar's website:

Sometimes, unscrupulous tenants would suddenly leave the demised premises without informing the landlord. When the landlord breaks the lock to take possession of the demised premises, the landlord is then slapped with a civil suit claiming for an astronomical amount for the landlord’s purported “self-help”.

The current practice now is for the landlord to lodge a police report and break the lock in the presence of a police officer in order to avoid further complications. A prudent landlord would even take photos of the interior of the demised premises to ensure that the tenant would not later claim loss of properties.


Referring to the parts in bold - that method can be done but it is not foolproof. What stops the tenant from later claiming that the goods were removed BEFORE the photographs were taken? Furthermore, once the locks have been broken, how is the premises secured? Another lock? Once again, the landlord has deprived the tenant of lawful use and enjoyment of the premises (assuming that the tenant returns a week or so later). Putting on another lock is also self-help. As such, that method is not legal. If you read it properly, it doesn't say that it is a legal method. It only states that "the current practice now is that..."

So do be wary of that point.

QUOTE(Urban @ Feb 9 2012, 06:12 PM)
So are they are legal way to evict him other then court?
*
Second time you're asking me this question,bro. I think I've answered you. So I'm going to respectfully ask you a question in reply to your question smile.gif :

If the law provides a legal remedy by way of going to the Court for an order, why would there be any other legal remedy which would interfere/usurp the powers of the Court? If so, would it not make the Court meaningless/redundant? hmm.gif

Food for thought smile.gif

Cheers. icon_rolleyes.gif


nujikabane
post Feb 9 2012, 10:36 PM

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Hello all forumers, especially @dariofoo smile.gif

A question; 2 shareholders (let's call them AA & ZZ) enter into an agreement to set up a Sdn Bhd Co.
They agreed to pump the same amount of money.

However, AA doesn't have the money, so AA requests that ZZ pump the money on his behalf first, and AA promises to repay ZZ back.

So in the papers prepared by Co Sec, the share of both director's are 50:50, but in actual fact 100% money was pumped by ZZ.

Question; what are the avenues for ZZ to get the money back?
Mlchoo
post Feb 9 2012, 11:10 PM

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Hi Dario,

I had already "very forcefully" told the bank to show proof this is stipulated in the loan agreement. I am waiting for their answer now... whistling.gif think the lady also blur liao after my "talk" with her, she said got to go check wor... nod.gif
I told her if they state this clearly upfront, I would have taken the principal and go put fixed deposit for half a month and earn interest, rather than pay the bank early and still need to pay to them full month interest!! I even said if this is their bank practice, on the flipside, I will open a savings account and close it on the 10th, see if they will give me full month interest boh... if yes, I shall share to the world such easy money. rclxms.gif

I also checked with a friend of mine who is a Loans manager in another bank. His bank does not charge interest after the redemption date. It's just logical I feel. That is what I am telling my bank. So I cannot accept just like that. Now I want the bank to show me where is this stated in the loan agreement!!! If not, return me my hard earn money. cry.gif

Maybe I should charge them interest (full month like them) for the delay in returning my money... Can I charge them interest? biggrin.gif

QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 9 2012, 10:05 PM)
Not sure,mate. It has to be reflected in the loan agreement. Are you sure that nothing is stated there?

If you want to claim back, and if you think you have a good case, then you have to appoint a lawyer and sue the bank! Or you can act in person also and sue the bank. As a matter of principle, of course.  icon_rolleyes.gif

*
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post Feb 10 2012, 01:17 AM

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QUOTE(kobe8byrant @ Feb 9 2012, 10:16 PM)
hey dario, thanks for your reply on my queries quite a while back. but i have a couple of questions in response to your answer:

1. are all transactions for properties without individual title applicable under NLC and if not, what act?
2. is a lien same as a lienholder's caveat? if no, what is the difference?
and what is difference between personalty and realty lien?

3. with regards to stamp duty and principal/subsidiary stamp duty, i understand them by definition but when it comes to application, i am confused.

mind providing example how stamp duty is charged with the documents involved in a simple buying/selling of property transaction?

4. with regards to charge and assignment, what are the differences between legal and equitible assignments? as far as i have come across, i would assume banks only deal with legal charges and assignments,

5. not sure if related to property but how would pledge and hypothecation work?

6. last of all, if a registrar caveat is the most powerful among the caveats, why won't banks/parties go for it over private caveat?

eg: if i pay 10%, i go RC i can prevent transactions going through if presented but not registered documents.

and does registrar caveat give power to sell or oonly lienholder' caveat?
TQ
*
1. Transactions? Yes the NLC does cover issues regarding master title, but don't forget the Housing Development Control and Licensing Act 1966 as well.
2 Lienholder's caveat is lodged pursuant to a lien. The lien is like the right you hold. With that right, you lodge a LH caveat to protect your interest. No idea as to the difference between personalty and realty lien. Perhaps personalty lien refers to moveable property as opposed to realty lien which applies to immovable property? Sorry mate not much of help there.

3. Stamp duty - let's say principal stamp duty is RM1,000 [based on 1% of SPA price of RM100,000.00]. Now the ORIGINAL copy of the Deed of Assignment will be stamped with RM1000.00, while another 3 DUPLICATE copies would be stamped with nominal stamp duty of RM10 each.

4. Legal - registered in accordance with the law. Equitable would mean that it was not registered in accordance with the law but the conduct and intent of the parties give rise to an assignment which can be enforceable in equity (fairness). A legal assignment/transfer always would defeat an equitable right. In Malaysia under the Torrens System, registration is everything. It defeats every other claim. Unless of course, the registered right was procured by way of fraud or forgery. In such scenarios, it can be set aside. That is why Banks would only deal with registrable charges and assignments which can be perfected.

5. No idea,mate.

6. Because a RC depends on the discretion of the Registrar, while a PC can be immediately registered once there is a caveatable interest. The Bank would not want to wait for ages for an RC to be lodged. Plus, it would be another hassle to remove it later. The Registrar has to remove it upon application. A PC can be removed by filing in a form and by paying the requisite fees on the spot. As such, for practicality purposes, a PC is always better.

Am not 100% sure but I think RC does not give right to sell.

icon_rolleyes.gif
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post Feb 10 2012, 01:20 AM

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QUOTE(nujikabane @ Feb 9 2012, 10:36 PM)
Hello all forumers, especially @dariofoo smile.gif

A question; 2 shareholders (let's call them AA & ZZ) enter into an agreement to set up a Sdn Bhd Co.
They agreed to pump the same amount of money.

However, AA doesn't have the money, so AA requests that ZZ pump the money on his behalf first, and AA promises to repay ZZ back.

So in the papers prepared by Co Sec, the share of both director's are 50:50, but in actual fact 100% money was pumped by ZZ.

Question; what are the avenues for ZZ to get the money back?
*
This is quite a common scenario. ZZ has a few options:

1) Deed of Trust - where AA agrees that he is holding 50% share as trustee on behalf of ZZ. This is followed up by blank transfer of shares forms duly executed by AA and kept by the Comp Sec.

2) A friendly loan agreement. No interest charged.

3) Blank transfer forms like in para (1), without Deed of Trust.


nujikabane
post Feb 10 2012, 12:19 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 10 2012, 01:20 AM)
This is quite a common scenario. ZZ has a few options:

1) Deed of Trust - where AA agrees that he is holding 50% share as trustee on behalf of ZZ. This is followed up by blank transfer of shares forms duly executed by AA and kept by the Comp Sec.

2) A friendly loan agreement. No interest charged.

3) Blank transfer forms like in para (1), without Deed of Trust.
*
Thank You for the answer smile.gif

That means, in regards to blank transfer of share form, it can be done either with or without Deed of Trust?

& when you mention blank transfer of form, what does it mean actually?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 10 2012, 01:26 PM

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QUOTE(nujikabane @ Feb 10 2012, 12:19 PM)
Thank You for the answer smile.gif

That means, in regards to blank transfer of share form, it can be done either with or without Deed of Trust?

& when you mention blank transfer of form, what does it mean actually?
*
Only the more prudent ones opt for Deed of Trust. Most opt for pre-signed forms.

Sorry perhaps I shouldn't have used the term 'blank'. It's not really blank in all areas. Everything is filled up except the date. It will be dated later when AA gives up his right to the shares, or when there's a problem and ZZ wants to get rid of AA.

icon_rolleyes.gif
Fresh n White
post Feb 10 2012, 11:19 PM

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I just want to know why some properties especially free hold can get transferred so fast even apartments and condos?
datuk_batery
post Feb 11 2012, 10:20 AM

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Hi

i have problem now with my lawyer...i have sell my house then every thing is settle including get balance from bank purchaser

the issue now is my lawyer dont want give that balance cheq without any reason...i told that lawyer firm if you not give my cheq by this mon i will do police report...

some one can advised me how to settle my issue

thx
TSdariofoo
post Feb 11 2012, 10:44 PM

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QUOTE(Fresh n White @ Feb 10 2012, 11:19 PM)
I just want to know why some properties especially free hold can get transferred so fast even apartments and condos?
*
Probably because consent from state authority is not required, as with (most, but not all) leasehold properties.
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post Feb 11 2012, 10:45 PM

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QUOTE(datuk_batery @ Feb 11 2012, 10:20 AM)
Hi

i have problem now with my lawyer...i have sell my house then every thing is settle including get balance from bank purchaser

the issue now is my lawyer dont want give that balance cheq without any reason...i told that lawyer firm if you not give my cheq by this mon i will do police report...

some one can advised me how to settle my issue

thx
*
There must be a reason why. Surely the lawyer must tell you why he is withholding the cheque.
datuk_batery
post Feb 11 2012, 11:17 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 11 2012, 10:45 PM)
There must be a reason why. Surely the lawyer must tell you why he is withholding the cheque.
*
what i understand is their company account dont enough money to pay back my cheq

i will do police report and bar council...
manemaren
post Feb 11 2012, 11:25 PM

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A property agent approach me and ask if I am selling my house as he has some buyers.

I agreed to sell as I am thinking of selling it for quite some time.

After about 3 month, he found me a buyer and asking for commission of abt 3% of the selling price.

Question is who should be paying this commision. Me - Seller or the buyer?

I have never signed any agreement with the Agent before this. He only give the agreement letter now.

Hope you can clarify.

Thanks
Tan2222959
post Feb 12 2012, 01:20 PM

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Hi all sifus, im selling off my house and the house is with my ex gf name..at 1st she agree to sell off without any conditions and now she asking for some $$$.. What should i do? I need the money for business and also pay off quite some debts..what do u all recommend for me to do? Thanks a lot
1282009
post Feb 12 2012, 04:55 PM

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Hi, normally how long do we expect to get individual title for condo unit? Who should we approach to enquire/speed this up, developer or condo management? Mine one is almost 5-6 years now after VP. Will the value of the prop increase after title is issued?


SnowDreamer
post Feb 12 2012, 07:14 PM

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Hi, do you have any "Offer to Sell" agreement sample? What shall be included in the agreement? Thank you.
ruben7389
post Feb 12 2012, 07:56 PM

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QUOTE(1282009 @ Feb 12 2012, 04:55 PM)
Hi, normally how long do we expect to get individual title for condo unit? Who should we approach to enquire/speed this up, developer or condo management? Mine one is almost 5-6 years now after VP. Will the value of the prop increase after title is issued?
*
Thats what I heard too... my condo also getting ind title issued shortly and everyone waiting for price to go up a bit
TSdariofoo
post Feb 12 2012, 07:58 PM

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QUOTE(datuk_batery @ Feb 11 2012, 11:17 PM)
what i understand is their company account dont enough money to pay back my cheq

i will do police report and bar council...
*
"Rolling" with client's monies is a serious offence not only with the Bar Council but is also a criminal offence. Criminal Breach of Trust.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Feb 12 2012, 08:00 PM
TSdariofoo
post Feb 12 2012, 07:59 PM

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QUOTE(manemaren @ Feb 11 2012, 11:25 PM)
A property agent approach me and ask if I am selling my house as he has some buyers.

I agreed to sell as I am thinking of selling it for quite some time.

After about 3 month, he found me a buyer and asking for commission of abt 3% of the selling price.

Question is who should be paying this commision. Me - Seller or the buyer?

I have never signed any agreement with the Agent before this. He only give the agreement letter now.

Hope you can clarify.

Thanks
*
Seller pays. However, there is no fixed rate for his commission and it is subject to agreement by both parties.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 12 2012, 08:03 PM

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QUOTE(Tan2222959 @ Feb 12 2012, 01:20 PM)
Hi all sifus, im selling off my house and the house is with my ex gf name..at 1st she agree to sell off without any conditions and now she asking for some $$$.. What should i do? I need the money for business and also pay off quite some debts..what do u all recommend for me to do? Thanks a lot
*
Common problem. Seems like you have no other choice to pay her if you can't reach a settlement. Power is in her hands as she is the registered proprietor of the property.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 12 2012, 08:08 PM

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QUOTE(1282009 @ Feb 12 2012, 04:55 PM)
Hi, normally how long do we expect to get individual title for condo unit? Who should we approach to enquire/speed this up, developer or condo management? Mine one is almost 5-6 years now after VP. Will the value of the prop increase after title is issued?
*
Up to the developer, actually. Unless the JMB can round up and put some pressure on the developer. What is the JMB's stand on this? The law does not put in a timeframe for the developer to do so.
manemaren
post Feb 12 2012, 08:16 PM

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If I sell a my own property, do I need to give the buyer 18 warranty period like the one developer gave?

1282009
post Feb 12 2012, 08:30 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 12 2012, 08:08 PM)
Up to the developer, actually. Unless the JMB can round up and put some pressure on the developer. What is the JMB's stand on this? The law does not put in a timeframe for the developer to do so.
*
Thanks, I will check with condo management as first step.


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post Feb 12 2012, 09:47 PM

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QUOTE(SnowDreamer @ Feb 12 2012, 07:14 PM)
Hi, do you have any "Offer to Sell" agreement sample? What shall be included in the agreement? Thank you.
*
Or, it just a simple agreement to indicate deposit had been given?
This is my first time buying house and had been reading the posts but can't find it, hope forumers here can help. Thank you. smile.gif


datuk_batery
post Feb 13 2012, 10:00 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 12 2012, 07:58 PM)
"Rolling" with client's monies is a serious offence not only with the Bar Council but is also a criminal offence. Criminal Breach of Trust.
*
I will meet my lawyer today, if they not give my cheq and show their bank statement is enough to pay back my money...once i issue settle i will share with lawyaer firm cheat me...

i dont have they cheat other people also...
bowestested
post Feb 13 2012, 11:24 AM

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Hi dariofoo, can you please advice on the charges below?
Your help is much appreciated. Thank you.

Apartment
Unit purchase price: RM290K
Title: Freehold

Our Fees:-
(1) Sale and Purchase Agreement & Transfer 2,680.00
(2) CKHT 2A (RM200 / submission) 200.00
(3) Entry & Withdrawal of Private Caveat (Optional) -
6% Government Service Tax 172.80

Disbursements:-
1. Stamp Duty
a. Sale & Purchase Agreement and 3 copies 40.00
b. Transfer (estimated)
1st RM100,000 x 1% = RM1,000.00
Balance RM190,000.00 x 2% = RM3,800.00
50% rebate for first residential unit below RM350,000.00 2,400.00
c. Adjudication on Transfer 10.00
d. Statutory Declaration 20.00
2. Registration
a. Transfer 300.00
b. Caveator’s Consent 50.00
c. Entry & Withdrawal of Private Caveat -
3. Search on
a. Title and Caveat 90.00
b. Bankruptcy Search 60.00
c. Winding Up Search -
d. SSM Search -
4. Other Charges
a. Affirmation 20.00
b. Transport & courier charges 90.00
c. Telephone, postage and facsimile 90.00
d. Photocopying and all other charges 90.00
-------------
TOTAL RM6312.8
Note :
- Stamp duty on transfer is subject to final notice of assessment;
- Registration fees may be subject to penalty for late presentation.
- Lodgement of Private Caveat is waived by the Purchaser expressly.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 13 2012, 11:49 AM

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QUOTE(manemaren @ Feb 12 2012, 08:16 PM)
If I sell a my own property, do I need to give the buyer 18 warranty period like the one developer gave?
*
No. It is always sold on an as-is-where-is basis.
jeff_v2
post Feb 14 2012, 12:42 PM

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hi, my friend got this problem regarding his loan status.
i advise him to consult with his lawyer but no positive outcome.

the problem is my friend bought a house with his wife.
both name on loan and on spa agreement.
he already divorce with his wife and his wife no helping in paying the monthly repayment.
only he still continue the reapyment with bank.
izit possible to him to change the property and loan name to his single name, without any consent from his wife coz he already lost/unable to contact his exwife since the past 2years.

really appreciate ur help, tqvm...
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post Feb 14 2012, 12:49 PM

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QUOTE(jeff_v2 @ Feb 14 2012, 12:42 PM)

he already divorce with his wife and his wife no helping in paying the monthly repayment.
*
When filing the divorce petition, it would include how the jointly-owned properties of the parties are to be distributed. Check the Court order first and see what it says.
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post Feb 14 2012, 01:21 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 14 2012, 12:49 PM)
When filing the divorce petition, it would include how the jointly-owned properties of the parties are to be distributed. Check the Court order first and see what it says.
*
it would be an "oh oh" doh.gif if his buddy finds out it's 50/50!
I'm lucky in the sense that everything to be signed over to me and i just pay $ to ex, clear and simple. sweat.gif
Nitrous
post Feb 14 2012, 02:49 PM

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I guess divorce is the topic of the day. Dario would like to seek some advise. I have only one property, which I m the sole name on the SPA and loan agreement. I pay everything myself, and do not rely on wife to pay anything with regards to property or the upkeep of the said property (utilities etc).
In a divorce scenario, do i need to split my property 50/50 with her, eventhough she has no hand in it? This property was bought when we are still together, and we moved into this place for a while too. If we need to split this, i would end up homeless actually, and pretty broke too since I still owe the banks...
Thanks a lot
ralph_lauren
post Feb 14 2012, 05:26 PM

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Apartment
purchase price : 340k

Freehold

I have a property under my name and i would like to have a joint name with my wife.

is the property entitled for 50% on stamp duty ?

Will they bank offer loan amount = purchase price?

i mean 90% of loan based on purchase price

Thanks a lot !

This post has been edited by ralph_lauren: Feb 14 2012, 05:27 PM
TSdariofoo
post Feb 14 2012, 06:43 PM

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QUOTE(Nitrous @ Feb 14 2012, 02:49 PM)
I guess divorce is the topic of the day. Dario would like to seek some advise. I have only one property, which I m the sole name on the SPA and loan agreement. I pay everything myself, and do not rely on wife to pay anything with regards to property or the upkeep of the said property (utilities etc).
In a divorce scenario, do i need to split my property 50/50 with her, eventhough she has no hand in it? This property was bought when we are still together, and we moved into this place for a while too. If we need to split this, i would end up homeless actually, and pretty broke too since I still owe the banks...
Thanks a lot
*
It doesn't matter whether you were the sole breadwinner, paid for everything and the fact that everything is under your name without any expense paid by your wife. Even if your wife was a mere housewife, it is her right to a portion (up to half) of any assets of the husband gained during the subsistence of the marriage. That is the law. Even if she is a housewife, she has her duties and contribution to the marriage as well. As such, she has a right to have a share in the assets.
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post Feb 14 2012, 06:47 PM

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QUOTE(ralph_lauren @ Feb 14 2012, 05:26 PM)
Apartment
purchase price : 340k

Freehold

I have a property under my name and i would like to have a joint name with my wife.

is the property entitled for 50% on stamp duty ?

*
Can apply for your wife's half share to be entitled for 50% rebate.

QUOTE(ralph_lauren @ Feb 14 2012, 05:26 PM)
Will they bank offer loan amount = purchase price?

i mean 90% of loan based on purchase price

Thanks a lot !
*
Ask this to a banker or mortgage consultant and they can advise you. nod.gif
wongmunkeong
post Feb 14 2012, 06:58 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 14 2012, 06:43 PM)
It doesn't matter whether you were the sole breadwinner, paid for everything and the fact that everything is under your name without any expense paid by your wife. Even if your wife was a mere housewife, it is her right to a portion (up to half) of any assets of the husband gained during the subsistence of the marriage. That is the law. Even if she is a housewife, she has her duties and contribution to the marriage as well. As such, she has a right to have a share in the assets.
*
Dario, if i may throw in a wildcard - if the bro/sis is a Muslim, it's a different story right?

In addition, from what i understand, whether non-muslim or muslim, if he/she can prove that certain assets were acquired BEFORE marriage, then those assets are NOT part of the 50% split right?

My bad ar - i read bits and pieces everywhere, havent googled to provide the links here (heck, it may be from books & mags). notworthy.gif

This post has been edited by wongmunkeong: Feb 14 2012, 06:59 PM
FiddyRob
post Feb 14 2012, 08:11 PM

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Hi there smile.gif

Not sure who I can refer to, hope you can spare me a few minutes of your time.

I intend to make full settlement of my housing loan with the bank (Lock up period of 5 years is over). Requested for the redemption statement and now waiting for the bank to get back to me with the figures. My question is why do I need to engage a lawyer to handle this? The bank stated that lawyer is required. Is this a normal practise? If its so do you know how much is the lawyer fees? Thought its a straight forward case. hmm.gif Things get complicated nowadays.

Appreciate your advise. Thank you.

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post Feb 15 2012, 12:26 AM

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QUOTE(FiddyRob @ Feb 14 2012, 08:11 PM)

I intend to make full settlement of my housing loan with the bank (Lock up period of 5 years is over). Requested for the redemption statement and now waiting for the bank to get back to me with the figures.  My question is why do I need to engage a lawyer to handle this? The bank stated that lawyer is required. Is this a normal practise? If its so do you know how much is the lawyer fees? Thought its a straight forward case.  hmm.gif Things get complicated nowadays.

Appreciate your advise. Thank you.
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A similar question has been asked before earlier in this thread. Browse the first few pages and you shall find the answer. Cheers. icon_rolleyes.gif
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post Feb 15 2012, 12:40 AM

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QUOTE(wongmunkeong @ Feb 14 2012, 06:58 PM)
Dario, if i may throw in a wildcard - if the bro/sis is a Muslim, it's a different story right?
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If Muslim, they have this concept of 'harta sepencarian' which is similar to the concept in civil cases. power is given to the Syariah Court to determine the division, but more often than not the Court will order an equal split. But the burden would be on the wife to prove that the assets were procured during the subsistence of the marriage. nod.gif

QUOTE(wongmunkeong @ Feb 14 2012, 06:58 PM)
In addition, from what i understand, whether non-muslim or muslim, if he/she can prove that certain assets were acquired BEFORE marriage, then those assets are NOT part of the 50% split right?
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Yes, if acquired before marriage, then it would not be considered for purposes of division.

If I may add a bit - in reality, more often than not, parties arrive at a settlement with regard to division of assets. Perhaps the wife will get to keep the matrimonial home. The husband would continue paying the monthly instalments. The husband will keep the main car, and the second car will go to the wife. Custody will be with the mother, with visitation rights by the father. Father has to pay maintenance (or alimony, as they call it in the US) to the wife (quantum depends on whether wife is working or otherwise) and kids. Husband has to pay insurance and pay all education expenses until kids turn 18. More often than not, these are common terms agreed upon in a divorce.

Only the ugly separations - probably caused by abusive or adulterous spouses - which end up in bitter, long, drawn-out court battles filled with lies, baseless and exaggerated accusations and allegations, scheming conniving lawyers who spit and spew venomous words in their submissions on behalf of their beleaguered clients and a poor judge in the middle scratching his/her head wondering how to decide as to which party is a better liar (as opposed to which party is telling the truth!) doh.gif

smile.gif
ralph_lauren
post Feb 15 2012, 07:55 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 14 2012, 06:47 PM)
Can apply for your wife's half share to be entitled for 50% rebate.
Ask this to a banker or mortgage consultant and they can advise you.  nod.gif
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i would like to buy 2nd house with my wife , but i do have 1 unit previously under my name d....

my wife entitled for the 50% rebate on stamp duty ? Thanks
wongmunkeong
post Feb 15 2012, 08:21 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 15 2012, 12:40 AM)
If Muslim, they have this concept of 'harta sepencarian' which is similar to the concept in civil cases. power is given to the Syariah Court to determine the division, but more often than not the Court will order an equal split. But the burden would be on the wife to prove that the assets were procured during the subsistence of the marriage.  nod.gif
Yes, if acquired before marriage, then it would not be considered for purposes of division.

If I may add a bit - in reality, more often than not, parties arrive at a settlement with regard to division of assets. Perhaps the wife will get to keep the matrimonial home. The husband would continue paying the monthly instalments. The husband will keep the main car, and the second car will go to the wife. Custody will be with the mother, with visitation rights by the father. Father has to pay maintenance (or alimony, as they call it in the US) to the wife (quantum depends on whether wife is working or otherwise) and kids. Husband has to pay insurance and pay all education expenses until kids turn 18. More often than not, these are common terms agreed upon in a divorce.

Only the ugly separations - probably caused by abusive or adulterous spouses - which end up in bitter, long, drawn-out court battles filled with lies, baseless and exaggerated accusations and allegations, scheming conniving lawyers who spit and spew venomous words in their submissions on behalf of their beleaguered clients and a poor judge in the middle scratching his/her head wondering how to decide as to which party is a better liar (as opposed to which party is telling the truth!)  doh.gif

smile.gif
*
On the Custody will be with the mother, with visitation rights by the father, if i may share from experience (ouch!), as a father, press for joint-custody even though the mother may get daily care (ie. child stays with mother), else you may as well say your final goodbyes to your child. In addition, it's hard to fight for your child to stay with you, as a father, when the courts traditionally grant young children's care to the mother - onus of proof of "unfit parent" is on the father (and we know how hard that is even if it's true) cry.gif
TheNew
post Feb 15 2012, 11:50 AM

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My friend purchase a 2nd hand house in quite good location. She paid booking, signed letter offer from bank and as well as SPA. Before that she had informed the owner that she'll be withdraw money from EPF to pay the 1st 10%. The owner agreed to wait even after signing SPA but she has one month to do so.

When she asked the owner about MOT because EPF need it with SPA then only she's able to withdraw to pay the owner.
However the owner is in the processing of transfering MOT from developer and it would take one month to do so. Owner's lawyer sent my friend a form called 14A. To her dismay, EPF rejected because the form 14A need to be stamped by land officer.

So according to owner's lawyer, unless she's able to pay the remaining 1st 10% using her own saving then the transition will be smooth. Otherwise owner will be having a big risk that is ; losing the property and as well as the 1st downpayment if my friend just in case she refuse to pay her after withdraw from EPF. Then if this is going to court case, according to the lawyer, my friend will have high possibility to win which frightened the owner.

And now, the owner doesn't want to proceed the selling unless she comes out with the remaining 1st 10% cash.But my friend doesn't have that big amount of cash.
The lucky part is there's no penalty and forfeited by lawyer and the estate agent.But afraid the bank will charge her penalty becasue she has signed the offer letter.

Now What should be done? Terminate the buying or ??? She's so depressed... icon_question.gif

feizaiII
post Feb 15 2012, 11:52 AM

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Good day dariofoo..

Just curious, normally it's take how long for MOT process? Puchong property.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 15 2012, 02:35 PM

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QUOTE(wongmunkeong @ Feb 15 2012, 08:21 AM)
On the Custody will be with the mother, with visitation rights by the father, if i may share from experience (ouch!), as a father, press for joint-custody even though the mother may get daily care (ie. child stays with mother), else you may as well say your final goodbyes to your child. In addition, it's hard to fight for your child to stay with you, as a father, when the courts traditionally grant young children's care to the mother - onus of proof of "unfit parent" is on the father (and we know how hard that is even if it's true) cry.gif
*
Joint custody may be difficult if the wife is the vindictive type. coupled with the evil creative genius of a lawyer who can conjure up magical tales of adultery, abuse, late nights out, or drunkenness on the part of the father, even though it may not be true at all.

That is why contested divorces lawyers are those who specialise in that field and not many others dare to venture into it. Those naive lawyers who do not have a clue as to what they are up against would seriously be in for a shock as to what their opponent is capable of coming up with. It's a dirty game, sad to say.

Not in all 100% of divorces cases though. Just the seriously contested ones. It never ends up well..not for the couple that is..The lawyers get paid at the end of the day, nonetheless.
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post Feb 15 2012, 02:36 PM

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QUOTE(ralph_lauren @ Feb 15 2012, 07:55 AM)
i would like to buy 2nd house with my wife , but i do have 1 unit previously under my name d....

my wife entitled for the 50% rebate on stamp duty ? Thanks
*
Didn't I answer that question in my last answer which you quoted? rclxub.gif doh.gif
ralph_lauren
post Feb 15 2012, 02:42 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 15 2012, 02:36 PM)
Didn't I answer that question in my last answer which you quoted?  rclxub.gif  doh.gif
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so sorry.. i afraid u misunderstood my question .. got it d... thanks a lot bro ! thumbup.gif thumbup.gif
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post Feb 15 2012, 02:54 PM

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QUOTE(TheNew @ Feb 15 2012, 11:50 AM)
My friend purchase a 2nd hand house in quite good location. She paid booking, signed letter offer from bank and as well as SPA. Before that she had informed the owner that she'll be withdraw money from EPF to pay the 1st 10%. The owner agreed to wait even after signing SPA but she has one month to do so.

When she asked the owner about MOT because EPF need it with SPA then only she's able to withdraw to pay the owner.
However the owner is in the processing of transfering MOT from developer and it would take one month to do so. Owner's lawyer sent my friend a form called 14A. To her dismay, EPF rejected because the form 14A need to be stamped by land officer.

So according to owner's lawyer, unless she's able to pay the remaining 1st 10% using her own saving then the transition will be smooth. Otherwise owner will be having a big risk that is ; losing the property and as well as the 1st downpayment if my friend just in case she refuse to pay her after withdraw from EPF. Then if this is going to court case, according to the lawyer, my friend will have high possibility to win which frightened the owner.

And now, the owner doesn't want to proceed the selling unless she comes out with the remaining 1st 10% cash.But my friend doesn't have that big amount of cash.
The lucky part is there's no penalty and forfeited by lawyer and the estate agent.But afraid the bank will charge her penalty becasue she has signed the offer letter.

Now What should be done? Terminate the buying or ??? She's so depressed... icon_question.gif
*
Actually the owner has a good case to win as your fren has signed the SPA and agreed to buy the property. The owner can compel your fren to proceed to buy it. Why would the owner be worried?

Of course the owner would want some security - that is the purpose of the 10% deposit. It would be forfeited if the purchaser does not proceed with the purchase or if the completion date is expired.

So what is the exact clause provided for in the SPA? 1 month to pay 10% failing which it will be terminated? What was the arrangement between the parties? Or is it silent? hmm.gif

More info needed.
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post Feb 15 2012, 03:04 PM

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QUOTE(feizaiII @ Feb 15 2012, 11:52 AM)
Good day dariofoo..

Just curious, normally it's take how long for MOT process? Puchong property.
*
Not sure la boss. Hard to say. If staff cuti or kursus camne? doh.gif

1-2 weeks on average. If Shah Alam they promise within 3 working days.

Just to add - if it is for your loan, it is not an issue as the presentation receipt is enough for the bank to issue the cheque for the balance purchase price. Later the bank's lawyer can collect the MOT and forward it to the bank.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Feb 15 2012, 03:05 PM
shneo70
post Feb 15 2012, 06:28 PM

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Good day dariofoo,

I had recently bought a condo unit which is tenanted. The tenancy agreement shall expired in a few months. I had asked the tenant and he is keen to continue renting the apartment.

My query is, how should I get the rental deposit from the vendor? Or shall I just sign a fresh agreement with the tenant, let the tenant deal with his landlord for the refund of his rental deposit? Many thanks.
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post Feb 15 2012, 06:31 PM

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QUOTE(shneo70 @ Feb 15 2012, 06:28 PM)
Good day dariofoo,

I had recently bought a condo unit which is tenanted. The tenancy agreement shall expired in a few months. I had asked the tenant and he is keen to continue renting the apartment.

My query is, how should I get the rental deposit from the vendor? Or shall I just sign a fresh agreement with the tenant, let the tenant deal with his landlord for the refund of his rental deposit? Many thanks.
*
You can either get the vendor to refund it back to you simultaneously upon handing over of vacant possession at the end of the transaction OR even simple would be to incorporate the deposit in the purchase price, i.e. it will be deducted from the balance purchase price [BPP] and be deemed to have been paid to the vendor. Something along those lines. Your lawyer ought to know how to go about it. The second option is better as you still take a gamble if the vendor fails to pay you at the end of the day. Better just deduct from BPP.

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shneo70
post Feb 15 2012, 06:36 PM

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Thanks for the advice. Will inform my lawyer. Thanks a million


Added on February 15, 2012, 6:43 pm
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 15 2012, 06:31 PM)
You can either get the vendor to refund it back to you simultaneously upon handing over of vacant possession at the end of the transaction OR even simple would be to incorporate the deposit in the purchase price, i.e. it will be deducted from the balance purchase price [BPP] and be deemed to have been paid to the vendor. Something along those lines. Your lawyer ought to know how to go about it. The second option is better as you still take a gamble if the vendor fails to pay you at the end of the day. Better just deduct from BPP.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Sorry, dariofoo, I forgot to ask, which lawyer should I inform regarding the rental deposit? The S&P lawyer or the bank loan lawyer? Thanks. smile.gif

This post has been edited by shneo70: Feb 15 2012, 06:43 PM
TSdariofoo
post Feb 15 2012, 06:57 PM

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QUOTE(shneo70 @ Feb 15 2012, 06:36 PM)
Sorry, dariofoo, I forgot to ask, which lawyer should I inform regarding the rental deposit? The S&P lawyer or the bank loan lawyer? Thanks.  smile.gif
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SPA lawyer nod.gif
01356033
post Feb 16 2012, 12:38 PM

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hi, the case is : i'm a student , start from january(2012), i have rent a hse in taman bunga raya(tbr). the landlord request for 2 months deposit,1 month rental and 500 for utilities. total is 3500.

myself dun have so much money, so i have find some ppl and share the hse with me.
so, start from dec (2011) , i go and seach and finally at around 27 th or 28 dec , i bring 1 ppl go , and he agree ti rent the medium room with me. and he go atm and pay 300 cash and transfer 900 to me. (300 rental, 600 deposit, 300 utilities deposit). all tis is an oral agreement.

after i sign the contract with my landlord, the person who rent the hse has regret , he start to say "if i want quit can i get bek my money", and something like tat, bt at the end , he din quit and stil pay me for january rental and feb rental.
he is actually din move in after he pay me the money bcoz he will only start studying in college around feb.

however, after he pay me feb rental, he say he want to quit even the deposit nid to be forfeited. so , i pay bek his feb rental. and i pay his rental by myself.
but now , his mother com and ask to get bek all the 900 ( 1200 - 300 feb rental ) which is the deposit for rental and utilities.

she say tat : " my son din move in at all, so i can get bek my deposit "


so , wat should i do now ?

i have ask an agent , he say tat , even u just bring a ppl go to see hse, after he agree and did his payment for deposit, no money will be return in anyway.

pls help sad.gif i will be appreciate it.

she said tat want to bring to court also.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 16 2012, 01:51 PM

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01356033:

» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Of course you need to refund the deposit. It doesn't matter if he moves in or moves out. The deposit can only be withheld if there is outstanding rental or if there is damage to the property caused by that person which needs to be repaired and the cost will be deducted/contra from the deposit.

That agent gave you a different scenario. In such case, there is black and white Letter of Offer to Purchase (LO) between the parties and the earnest deposit is to book the property. Of course if the purchaser does not proceed the vendor can forfeit it. Furthermore, it would be stated in the LO that it is not refundable , and this is because it goes into the agent's pocket.

In your case, there is no agreement. between you and the sub-tenant. You can't forfeit it. I would advise you to return it to the sub-tenant.

Do you even have a tenancy agreement with the landlord? A standard agreement would prohibit sub-letting, unless with landlord's consent. Inherently, what you are doing now is also wrong. So you can't profit from it.

Cheers.

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feizaiII
post Feb 16 2012, 02:05 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 15 2012, 03:04 PM)
Not sure la boss. Hard to say. If staff cuti or kursus camne?  doh.gif

1-2 weeks on average. If Shah Alam they promise within 3 working days.

Just to add - if it is for your loan, it is not an issue as the presentation receipt is enough for the bank to issue the cheque for the balance purchase price. Later the bank's lawyer can collect the MOT and forward it to the bank.
*
Thanks dude..
i LIKE "kursus".. Haha

Noted your tips, presentation receipt. Let's me ask my lawyer about it.
01356033
post Feb 16 2012, 02:37 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 16 2012, 01:51 PM)
01356033:

» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Of course you need to refund the deposit. It doesn't matter if he moves in or moves out. The deposit can only be withheld if there is outstanding rental or if there is damage to the property caused by that person which needs to be repaired and the cost will be deducted/contra from the deposit.

That agent gave you a different scenario. In such case, there is black and white Letter of Offer to Purchase (LO) between the parties and the earnest deposit is to book the property. Of course if the purchaser does not proceed the vendor can forfeit it. Furthermore, it would be stated in the LO that it is not refundable , and this is because it goes into the agent's pocket.

In your case, there is no agreement. between you and the sub-tenant. You can't forfeit it. I would advise you to return it to the sub-tenant.

Do you even have a tenancy agreement with the landlord? A standard agreement would prohibit sub-letting, unless with landlord's consent. Inherently, what you are doing now is also wrong. So you can't profit from it.

Cheers.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
thx for ur reply, but do i have any method that dun have to pay bek the deposit ? coz i really no money 1, i din earn any single sen by doing tis. i rent the hse and rent out the room with the price give n by the landlord , and then divided it and rent it to them.

or if i nid to pay it bek, can i delay it until year end ? coz all the deposit those thing i have pass to the landlord , and i held ntg on my hand. and i have a tenency agreement with my landlord, would u like to have a look 1st ? i email it to u.


Added on February 16, 2012, 2:40 pm
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 16 2012, 01:51 PM)
01356033:

» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «


Of course you need to refund the deposit. It doesn't matter if he moves in or moves out. The deposit can only be withheld if there is outstanding rental or if there is damage to the property caused by that person which needs to be repaired and the cost will be deducted/contra from the deposit.

That agent gave you a different scenario. In such case, there is black and white Letter of Offer to Purchase (LO) between the parties and the earnest deposit is to book the property. Of course if the purchaser does not proceed the vendor can forfeit it. Furthermore, it would be stated in the LO that it is not refundable , and this is because it goes into the agent's pocket.

In your case, there is no agreement. between you and the sub-tenant. You can't forfeit it. I would advise you to return it to the sub-tenant.

Do you even have a tenancy agreement with the landlord? A standard agreement would prohibit sub-letting, unless with landlord's consent. Inherently, what you are doing now is also wrong. So you can't profit from it.

Cheers.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
and, if really nid to pay it bek, can i minus the deposit as a rental since i pay bek him the feb rental.

This post has been edited by 1356033: Feb 16 2012, 02:40 PM
nujikabane
post Feb 16 2012, 04:17 PM

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Good Day dariofoo smile.gif

A question, say that X & Y went to set up a Sdn Bhd company.
X suspected Y has embezzled/misappropriate company's funds.

What are the course of actions that X can take?

Please advice. Thanks
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post Feb 16 2012, 08:29 PM

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QUOTE(1356033 @ Feb 16 2012, 02:37 PM)
thx for ur reply, but do i have any method that dun have to pay bek the deposit ? coz i really no money 1, i din earn any single sen by doing tis. i rent the hse and rent out the room with the price give n by the landlord , and then divided it and rent it to them.

or if i nid to pay it bek, can i delay it until year end ? coz all the deposit those thing i have pass to the landlord , and i held ntg on my hand. and i have a tenency agreement with my landlord, would u like to have a look 1st ? i email it to u.


Added on February 16, 2012, 2:40 pm

and, if really nid to pay it bek, can i minus the deposit as a rental since i pay bek him the feb rental.
*
You need to pay it back. Whether can delay or not is up to the sub-tenant. You're not supposed to use that deposit. Deposits are refundable and must be returned upon request once the deal is done. I only give out advice via this thread so no PM or e-mails will be entertained. Do put it up here so I take a look, if you want. I doubt if it would help anything though. That is between you and the landlord.

My advice is basically the same as before,bro.

Cheers.

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post Feb 16 2012, 08:36 PM

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QUOTE(nujikabane @ Feb 16 2012, 04:17 PM)
Good Day dariofoo smile.gif

A question, say that X & Y went to set up a Sdn Bhd company.
X suspected Y has embezzled/misappropriate company's funds.

What are the course of actions that X can take?

Please advice. Thanks
*
Lodge a police report. If it is true then it is a case of CBT.

Is Y a director? Then the company has to sue Y for breach of director's duty. By way of civil suit. You can get an injunction to freeze Y's assets if you have proof that the embezzled funds are in his account and that you have reasonable grounds to believe that he about to dissipate the funds out of the jurisdiction of the Court. Not easy, but it sure would put some pressure on Y as all his accounts will be frozen (if the injunction is granted). How many directors? If only 2 of them then have to forget it as both directors must agree for the company to appoint a lawyer. If 3 directors then X can gang up with the other to go ahead with the suit.

X as a director/shareholder can also file a Petition pursuant to Section 181 of the Companies Act against Y. Can ask the Court to cancel or vary any transaction made. However, clear proof of embezzlement must be shown, or the Court would not intervene. Various orders can be sought under this Section, even up to asking the Court to wind up the company.

Police report first. Very important.
nujikabane
post Feb 16 2012, 11:11 PM

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^ Thanks a lot dariofoo for the information.

By the way, the company has only 2 directors, which are X & Y.

By the way, the company is due for its annual submission of audited financial report to the LHDN. However, since there is no one to check the account (as Y is withholding the financial record / the records were not kept properly), the audit cannot begin.

Question;

[1] Do X needs to inform LHDN of this?
[2] & winding up legal costs, should it be borne by both directors, or from the sales from the inventories of the company?

Kindly advise, and I thank you in advance for the time you took to understand & answer our (other forumers & I) questions.
matches_malone
post Feb 17 2012, 05:15 AM

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Hi Dario, I have a lawyer looking into my issues but he’s been very quiet about it, I wonder if you have an opinion on what’s going on in my life. It’s kinda long, I hope you bear with me.

My father passed away on November after being ill for nearly two years and I am the eldest of 2 children (My brother is in form 3 this year, and I am 26). My mother agreed that I should look into all his assets, and my father managed to give me the PA (Power of attorney) to his three floors building that we rent out. (Our current income comes from the monthly rental). I am a fresh accounting degree graduate but unfortunately I feel that I am shoved too soon into the world of legal complications. Here’s why:

My late father owns several pieces of land, but according to my lawyer I am not permitted to inherit any of them as he is a bankrupt. My lawyer sent out a letter of insolvency and I am currently awaiting word (and legal advice from him). Apparently I can’t sell or develop the land until the bankruptcy issue is solved.

A developer recently demolished a partially built concrete pillars at one of my late fathers’ land and when I found out I came fuming. The developer agreed to offer me a property in the 30 storey condo that they are building, in which the size of my fathers’ land is I estimate a mere 2% of the entire scope of the project. They did send out several letters proposing to acquire the land to my father, but the negotiations did not meet any conclusions due to his untimely death. The offer itself is tempting, as the offered property is valued roughly 50% more than the initial amount offered to my father. (I do realize that this is a form of compensation for their trespassing). Regardless, as we (my mother, brother and I) are only renting a house now and we are searching for a place, my mother agreed on the offer. However, I do not have any authority on that land, it’s still under my late fathers’ name.

I have two questions:
1) What is required on my part to solve my fathers’ bankruptcy? I would like to develop or sell my fathers’ land so I could probably have enough to open up a business to secure the family income. Unfortunately, my father did not left any outline as to what we should do in a worst case scenario.

2) What are the procedures that I have to take to secure the property at the condo that is under construction that was offered? I would wish that I could legally secure my family and I that so we could move in at the time of completion. What documents should I claim from them and is there any precautions I should take? The developers are being helpful so far, but it’s far better for me to be prepared.

I value any insights on the matter and thank you so much for taking time reading this. Have a nice day.

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post Feb 17 2012, 10:47 AM

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QUOTE(nujikabane @ Feb 16 2012, 11:11 PM)
^ Thanks a lot dariofoo for the information.

By the way, the company has only 2 directors, which are X & Y.

By the way, the company is due for its annual submission of audited financial report to the LHDN. However, since there is no one to check the account (as Y is withholding the financial record / the records were not kept properly), the audit cannot begin.

Question;

[1] Do X needs to inform LHDN of this?
[2] & winding up legal costs, should it be borne by both directors, or from the sales from the inventories of the company?

Kindly advise, and I thank you in advance for the time you took to understand & answer our (other forumers & I) questions.
*
1. Question - the comp secretary (CS) is on whose side? If it's from X side, then X has to instruct CS to come up with a board reso to appoint auditors for the company. X signs it and Y mus also sigh it. Y has disappeared, is it? If so, then CS should write to SSM to inform them of this, to place it on record of the director's refusal to sign the board reso AND refusal to provide the company's financial records. SSM can take action against Y. Probably the accounts would only be submitted late and this would attract a penalty. That is when X can show all the documents to prove that he acted in good faith at all times and that the delay was from Y.

2. Legal fees - X would have to cough it up to pay his lawyers, as he would be suing Y in his personal capacity. Note that the company cannot sue Y in its capacity as 2 directors need to sign the reso to appoint the law firm to act on its behalf. Surely Y would not sign it to consent to the appointment of the law firm to sue him!

Costs of winding up - would be paid out of company's assets. If no assets, then X would probably have to cough it up and bear the expenses, since he is the one who is seeking the winding up order. Whether he wants to pursue Y for indemnity and damages later is up to him

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 17 2012, 11:01 AM

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I think you have put the cart before the horse in this case. The first and foremost thing which you have to do is to inform the Insolvency Department of your father's death. Has this been done? The Dept would have a file on him and all his affairs are to be managed through the Dept. You have no power to appoint a lawyer or deal with the developer on behalf of your father's estate. You need to check with the Dept first. They would advise you further on this. If the estate wants to appoint a lawyer, consent (called sanction) of the Dept has to be obtained first.

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kosinus
post Feb 18 2012, 01:35 PM

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Hi Dariofoo,

I got a situation here. I was in a process of buying a 2nd hand house 33 years ago. 10% deposit had been given to the owner. SNP was ready and signed. I've also singed bank agreement for loan. Everything went good.

After a while, bank has noticed me that the house cannot be bought due to the owner is declared bankrupt. It hangs there.

SNP lawyer suggested to sue the owner for not being honest not telling he is a bankrupt. But until today, nothing is done. I've taken my own initiative to deal with the owner for returning my deposit back as i didn't get the house and dont want to pursue my intention onto the house anymore. The owner agreed to pay back by installment. It's fine for me.

The thing is i've paid the lawyer. I would say he failed to do his job. Was he supposed to do property searching before proceed with anything e.g snp, etc? Can I get the money back frm the lawyer or my money is wasted already?
jimme
post Feb 19 2012, 02:05 PM

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hi dariofoo,

I just bought an 2nd hand house with 8 years, apartment, leashold. Paid 3% booking fee. Assigning lawyer to prepare S&P, and applying loan.

My Qs is:
1. Shall I use the same lawyer of seller? (seller use same lawyer with developer, in the process of MOT now) Seller intend to transfer the Strata to my name directly, as the MOT just start.
2. How do I ensure the house tax, indah water, water & elec bills has been clear before hand over to me? Is this lawyer job?
3. Agent & seller try to persuade me to use same lawyer, to save time & money. But I not sure which part to be exactly saving money. Can you help?

Many thanks.
TamaUser
post Feb 19 2012, 04:56 PM

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Hi, a simple question here.

I planned to operate a business, trading related shop. What is the requirement to operate a store in Malaysia? Any procedure I can refer to?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 19 2012, 09:49 PM

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QUOTE(kosinus @ Feb 18 2012, 01:35 PM)
Hi Dariofoo,

I got a situation here. I was in a process of buying a 2nd hand house 33 years ago. 10% deposit had been given to the owner. SNP was ready and signed. I've also singed bank agreement for loan. Everything went good.

After a while, bank has noticed me that the house cannot be bought due to the owner is declared bankrupt. It hangs there.

SNP lawyer suggested to sue the owner for not being honest not telling he is a bankrupt. But until today, nothing is done. I've taken my own initiative to deal with the owner for returning my deposit back as i didn't get the house and dont want to pursue my intention onto the house anymore. The owner agreed to pay back by installment. It's fine for me.

The thing is i've paid the lawyer. I would say he failed to do his job. Was he supposed to do property searching before proceed with anything e.g snp, etc? Can I get the money back frm the lawyer or my money is wasted already?
*
Your SPA lawyer is pretty smart - trying to deflect it and blame it on the vendor for not disclosing his bankruptcy. What the SPA lawyer ought to have done was to do a bankruptcy search on the vendor ASAP, preferrably before execution of the SPA and before the balance deposit changes hands.

What you need to do now is to sue your SPA lawyer for negligence. What money back are you referring to? Legal fees or the deposit?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 19 2012, 09:53 PM

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QUOTE(jimme @ Feb 19 2012, 02:05 PM)
hi dariofoo,

I just bought an 2nd hand house with 8 years, apartment, leashold. Paid 3% booking fee. Assigning lawyer to prepare S&P, and applying loan.

My Qs is:
1. Shall I use the same lawyer of seller? (seller use same lawyer with developer, in the process of MOT now) Seller intend to transfer the Strata to my name directly, as the MOT just start.
2. How do I ensure the house tax, indah water, water & elec bills has been clear before hand over to me? Is this lawyer job?
3. Agent & seller try to persuade me to use same lawyer, to save time & money. But I not sure which part to be exactly saving money. Can you help?

Many thanks.
*
1. Be careful. You can't share lawyers with the vendor. Only the vendor can tumpang your lawyer to do the redemption and discharge of charge/deed of RnR. I think what the agent n vendor is trying to do is to push you to appoint the vendor's choice of lawyer and then, you would pay full scaled fees while the vendor is the one who saves money, as the he doesn't pay full scaled fees. I'd suggest appointing your own lawyer as you're the purchaser and you would be paying full scaled fees nonetheless.

2. Depends on whether the lawyer includes it in the terms of the SPA. Most of the time, it is provided that all outgoings must be settled by the vendor in advance, and if there are any apportionments, it would be done at the end when the balance purchase price is handed over to the vendor.\

3. Vendor will be saving money. That's all.

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 19 2012, 10:04 PM

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QUOTE(TamaUser @ Feb 19 2012, 04:56 PM)
Hi, a simple question here.

I planned to operate a business, trading related shop. What is the requirement to operate a store in Malaysia? Any procedure I can refer to?
*
Well, to open up a business - a sole proprietorship, is quite easy. Go to SSM and with RM70 payment, you can register your business in slightly more than an hour. A Sdn Bhd might take longer, and is a bit pricey as folks always appoint a management firm to do it for them and then appoint the qualified person in that firm to be their company secretary.

After that you need to check whether licenses/permits are needed for your venture.

Thirdly, at the location where you're setting up - check with the local authority (DBKL,MPAJ,etc) as to their rules and regulations.

That's about all I can think of.

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 19 2012, 10:05 PM

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QUOTE(TamaUser @ Feb 19 2012, 04:56 PM)
Hi, a simple question here.

I planned to operate a business, trading related shop. What is the requirement to operate a store in Malaysia? Any procedure I can refer to?
*
Well, to open up a business - a sole proprietorship, is quite easy. Go to SSM and with RM70 payment, you can register your business in slightly more than an hour. A Sdn Bhd might take longer, and is a bit pricey as folks always appoint a management firm to do it for them and then appoint the qualified person in that firm to be their company secretary.

After that you need to check whether licenses/permits are needed for your venture.

Thirdly, at the location where you're setting up - check with the local authority (DBKL,MPAJ,etc) as to their rules and regulations.

That's about all I can think of.

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kosinus
post Feb 20 2012, 08:51 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 19 2012, 09:49 PM)
Your SPA lawyer is pretty smart - trying to deflect it and blame it on the vendor for not disclosing his bankruptcy. What the SPA lawyer ought to have done was to do a bankruptcy search on the vendor ASAP, preferrably before execution of the SPA and before the balance deposit changes hands.

What you need to do now is to sue your SPA lawyer for negligence. What money back are you referring to? Legal fees or the deposit?
*
Thanks for your feedback. I wish to have my legal fees back from the lawyer. I've settled deposit from the vendor after 3 years installment. What is the procedure to sue a lawyer?
irise.ufall
post Feb 20 2012, 11:10 AM

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Hi Dario Foo, good morning.

Hope u can still remember me. blush.gif

So.... new problems arise.

To make it short:

My bank has paid to the vendor the 1st payment to clear their loan with their bank since early of January 2012.

But unfortunately they are still dragging and keep delaying as at today. I am still waiting for them to hand over the documents required from the bank to my bank.

May i know:
1) Is there any legal way to force them to give the documents within a certain period? Their lawyer has been sitting with it until now.
2) The vendor is supposed to bear for the interest charged to me by the bank right?
3) They hav been ignoring my loan solicitor's letters (3 letters) which they request for the necessary documents. What can i or my loan solicitor do?

Pls help. notworthy.gif
TSdariofoo
post Feb 20 2012, 11:52 AM

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QUOTE(kosinus @ Feb 20 2012, 08:51 AM)
Thanks for your feedback. I wish to have my legal fees back from the lawyer. I've settled deposit from the vendor after 3 years installment. What is the procedure to sue a lawyer?
*
There's no special procedure. Just appoint a lawyer to do the necessary to file a civil suit in Court.

You can also file a complaint with the A&S Disciplinary Board but that would be disciplinary action against the lawyer and has nothing to do with the fees, which you have to recover by way of a civil suit as stated above.

However, a complaint, especially one which goes through and gets a hearing date fixed, would definitely put pressure on the lawyer to settle with you.

Good luck.

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 20 2012, 11:56 AM

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QUOTE(irise.ufall @ Feb 20 2012, 11:10 AM)
Hi Dario Foo, good morning.

Hope u can still remember me.  blush.gif

So.... new problems arise.

To make it short:

My bank has paid to the vendor the 1st payment to clear their loan with their bank since early of January 2012.

But unfortunately they are still dragging and keep delaying as at today. I am still waiting for them to hand over the documents required from the bank to my bank.

May i know:
1) Is there any legal way to force them to give the documents within a certain period? Their lawyer has been sitting with it until now.
2) The vendor is supposed to bear for the interest charged to me by the bank right?
3) They hav been ignoring my loan solicitor's letters (3 letters) which they request for the necessary documents. What can i or my loan solicitor do?

Pls help.  notworthy.gif
*
1) Nothing. You just get your completion date extended if there is a delay from the vendor's side. Unless there is something special in your SPA which states you can do something? Read it. Otherwise, there is nothing you can do.

2) Not in a normal agreement. Unless your SPA states something to that effect?

3) Nothing except send more reminders. Unless your SPA states something else which you can do?

Nothing much to help you as everything which a party is entitled to do or claim would be in the SPA. Nothing else which is contrary or not provided for in the SPA can be valid.

Cheers.

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valentinonkk
post Feb 20 2012, 12:01 PM

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I also have a problem...

I hv bought a hse about 3 years ago. The developer borne all the stamp duty & etc.

I am going to purchase an unit of apartment now.

Do i still entitle for the 50% discount on the stamp duty?

Do i need to apply for it?

Thanks in advance.

This post has been edited by valentinonkk: Feb 20 2012, 12:07 PM
TSdariofoo
post Feb 20 2012, 02:36 PM

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QUOTE(valentinonkk @ Feb 20 2012, 12:01 PM)
I also have a problem...

I hv bought a hse about 3 years ago. The developer borne all the stamp duty & etc.

I am going to purchase an unit of apartment now.

Do i still entitle for the 50% discount on the stamp duty?

Do i need to apply for it?

Thanks in advance.
*
No you can't. It is for first time purchaser only. nod.gif
calvins
post Feb 20 2012, 10:31 PM

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Hi,

I have a query.

Recently i have purchased a 2nd-hand unit and currently at the last stage (3rd month) where pending my SPA lawyer to submit final documents to my bank's lawyer in order for the bank to make final payment to the vendor. 1st payment from my bank to vendor's bank already done.

The delay is because pending for vendor to clear the house taxes.

I have obtained the keys from owner. Is it ok to start my renovation now ? Please advise as I'm rushing to get it completed.

This post has been edited by calvins: Feb 20 2012, 10:40 PM
TSdariofoo
post Feb 21 2012, 01:36 AM

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QUOTE(calvins @ Feb 20 2012, 10:31 PM)
Hi,

I have a query.

Recently i have purchased a 2nd-hand unit and currently at the last stage (3rd month) where pending my SPA lawyer to submit final documents to my bank's lawyer in order for the bank to make final payment to the vendor. 1st payment from my bank to vendor's bank already done.

The delay is because pending for vendor to clear the house taxes.

I have obtained the keys from owner. Is it ok to start my renovation now ? Please advise as I'm rushing to get it completed.
*
Sorry mate but if you want a guarantee that there would be any foul-ups resulting in the balance loan sum not released and jeopardising the whole transaction, you should directly ask your lawyer and ask your bank to guarantee you that. There's always a risk involved. I don't see it dragging more than a week or two, just to complete the whole transaction. If you really can't wait then you need to bear the risk. Cheers.

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This post has been edited by dariofoo: Feb 21 2012, 01:44 AM
kosinus
post Feb 21 2012, 01:03 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 20 2012, 11:52 AM)
There's no special procedure. Just appoint a lawyer to do the necessary to file a civil suit in Court.

You can also file a complaint with the A&S Disciplinary Board but that would be disciplinary action against the lawyer and has nothing to do with the fees, which you have to recover by way of a civil suit as stated above.

However, a complaint, especially one which goes through and gets a hearing date fixed, would definitely put pressure on the lawyer to settle with you.

Good luck.

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*
I found out that to make a complaint at ASDB, they require fee for processing of non refundable RM100.00. Is it true? doh.gif
jimme
post Feb 21 2012, 03:32 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 19 2012, 10:53 PM)
1. Be careful. You can't share lawyers with the vendor. Only the vendor can tumpang your lawyer to do the redemption and discharge of charge/deed of RnR. I think what the agent n vendor is trying to do is to push you to appoint the vendor's choice of lawyer and then, you would pay full scaled fees while the vendor is the one who saves money, as the he doesn't pay full scaled fees. I'd suggest appointing your own lawyer as you're the purchaser and you would be paying full scaled fees nonetheless.

2. Depends on whether the lawyer includes it in the terms of the SPA. Most of the time, it is provided that all outgoings must be settled by the vendor in advance, and if there are any apportionments, it would be done at the end when the balance purchase price is handed over to the vendor.\

3. Vendor will be saving money. That's all.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Hi Darifoo,

1. The vendor actually agree to share 50/50 S&P fee with us. What is the disadvantages behind?

2. If I appoint the bank panel agency to handle S&P and housing loan, does it make the overall process faster and better?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 21 2012, 06:27 PM

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QUOTE(kosinus @ Feb 21 2012, 01:03 PM)
I found out that to make a complaint at ASDB, they require fee for processing of non refundable RM100.00. Is it true?  doh.gif
*
Yes that's right nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Feb 21 2012, 06:30 PM

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QUOTE(jimme @ Feb 21 2012, 03:32 PM)
Hi Darifoo,

1. The vendor actually agree to share 50/50 S&P fee with us. What is the disadvantages behind?

2. If I appoint the bank panel agency to handle S&P and housing loan, does it make the overall process faster and better?
*
1. That doesn't work and is not practical. The lawyer ought to be representing you and thus act in your best interest, and not the vendor. How can that same lawyer collect half fees from vendor? Another thing is - this lawyer would've been approached by the vendor first. He can't now turn around and act for you 'against' the vendor. It's already a conflict of interest. Thirdly, the lawyer is not a robot. If the lawyer has a relationship with the vendor and the agent, do you really think that he can remain impartial and act in your best interests 100% ? I doubt so.

2. Normally it would be faster, provided the said bank panel law firm is efficient. That is what matters.

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CKW008
post Feb 23 2012, 10:10 AM

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Enquiry: sub-sale property during under construction..

kindly advise what is the procedure?

Developer allows consent to transfer during under-construction period with penalty of 1%.

How new buyer gonna buy if they agreed on the new purchase price as the old SPA price btw seller & developer is the first hand price..

Another SPA has to be made? if so how is the existing SPA btw seller & dev?

Need to wait until VP only apply loan or buyer just apply loan directly after valuation can be fetched?

How about redemption from financing bank? Seller is ready to pay RPGT and exit penalty to the bank..

Thanks alot if can help
sharpeye
post Feb 23 2012, 03:50 PM

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Hi Dariofoo,

Is there any valid reason for a Vendor to hold the house key even after bank has produce a cheque with his name?

I am the purchaser, and his lawyer told me, i still cant get the key because the Vendor want to do some income tax (or something else, i dunno and duncare).

How long normally he can hold the key before i can ask my lawyer to charge him with interest? (I call the vendor and tell this and he get mad)

From my understanding, the process is, Vendor get the cheque, I get the key.

What do you think i can do to get my key as soon as possible?

(p/s The Vendor bought the house cash, thats why bank pay directly)

This post has been edited by sharpeye: Feb 23 2012, 05:25 PM
merv87
post Feb 23 2012, 09:52 PM

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Hi, I am a first time purchaser and wish to enquire whether a leasehold property in Cheras, KL requires the consent of local authority for the transfer to be effected. My agent told me beginning this year there is no such requirement but he is not certain on it. Please advice. Thanks.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 23 2012, 10:14 PM

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QUOTE(CKW008 @ Feb 23 2012, 10:10 AM)
Enquiry: sub-sale property during under construction..

kindly advise what is the procedure?

Developer allows consent to transfer during under-construction period with penalty of 1%.

How new buyer gonna buy if they agreed on the new purchase price as the old SPA price btw seller & developer is the first hand price..

Another SPA has to be made? if so how is the existing SPA btw seller & dev?

Need to wait until VP only apply loan or buyer just apply loan directly after valuation can be fetched?

How about redemption from financing bank? Seller is ready to pay RPGT and exit penalty to the bank..

Thanks alot if can help
*
Another SPA has to be prepared. The existing SPA would no longer be applicable. However, it still needs to be kept for record purposes as there is no title yet.

Need to apply loan now itself as your bank needs to redeem vendor's loan.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 23 2012, 10:17 PM

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QUOTE(sharpeye @ Feb 23 2012, 03:50 PM)
Is there any valid reason for a Vendor to hold the house key even after bank has produce a cheque with his name?
*
No idea,mate.


QUOTE(sharpeye @ Feb 23 2012, 03:50 PM)
How long normally he can hold the key before i can ask my lawyer to charge him with interest? (I call the vendor and tell this and he get mad)
*
What does your SPA say? It will be stated there.


QUOTE(sharpeye @ Feb 23 2012, 03:50 PM)
What do you think i can do to get my key as soon as possible?
*
Ask your lawyer to write to the vendor's lawyer for you. And start calculating interest. If it is a lot and later when you get the keys, you always have the option to sue the vendor for the interest.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 23 2012, 10:19 PM

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QUOTE(merv87 @ Feb 23 2012, 09:52 PM)
Hi, I am a first time purchaser and wish to enquire whether a leasehold property in Cheras, KL requires the consent of local authority for the transfer to be effected. My agent told me beginning this year there is no such requirement but he is not certain on it. Please advice. Thanks.
*
Which land office, chief? If in Cheras it doesn't strictly mean KL Land Office. Boundaries for titles is always different, for some weird reason.
jimme
post Feb 23 2012, 10:22 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 21 2012, 07:30 PM)
1. That doesn't work and is not practical. The lawyer ought to be representing you and thus act in your best interest, and not the vendor. How can that same lawyer collect half fees from vendor? Another thing is - this lawyer would've been approached by the vendor first. He can't now turn around and act for you 'against' the vendor. It's already a conflict of interest. Thirdly, the lawyer is not a robot. If the lawyer has a relationship with the vendor and the agent, do you really think that he can remain impartial and act in your best interests 100% ? I doubt so.

2. Normally it would be faster, provided the said bank panel law firm is efficient. That is what matters.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Hi Dariafoo,

1.By impression vendor is kind, reason he wish i can use developer's panel lawyer is to get things settled faster because he is moving out from town soon. Besides he had paid certain amount for MOT and request lawyer to transfer the title directly to me, said this will save much of the time and my money since he had paid it. (is it true?) Thirdly when lawyer requested him to subsidy half of professional fee he agreed also. From above seems vendor does not have bad intention (i hope)

2.What bother me more is reliability of the developer's panel lawyer. If he is an ad-hoc lawyer, does it mean anything? If i appoint him as my SPA lawyer, how can i assure he will execute all obligations/duties in fair way by representing my rights i/o vendor's right? His quotation is simple, professional fee, stamp duty fee is usual, disbursement fee include Registration fees for MOT (with PA noting) RM420.00, Registration fees (Individual consent & master consent) RM150.00, Travelling RM100.00, Miscellaneous RM50.00. There are no land search, bankruptcy search, affirmation on statutory declaration and etc, should those be his duty and indicate on quotation?

Vendor is kind enough, understand there might have conflict using same lawyer, however i think there are standard manual that should abide by SPA lawyer, if it is written black and white then i would be relieved to appoint him.

Thanks for valuable time and advise notworthy.gif

TSdariofoo
post Feb 23 2012, 10:30 PM

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QUOTE(jimme @ Feb 23 2012, 10:22 PM)
Hi Dariafoo,

1.By impression vendor is kind, reason he wish i can use developer's panel lawyer is to get things settled faster because he is moving out from town soon. Besides he had paid certain amount for MOT and request lawyer to transfer the title directly to me, said this will save much of the time and my money since he had paid it. (is it true?) Thirdly when lawyer requested him to subsidy half of professional fee he agreed also. From above seems vendor does not have bad intention (i hope)

2.What bother me more is reliability of the developer's panel lawyer. If he is an ad-hoc lawyer, does it mean anything? If i appoint him as my SPA lawyer, how can i assure he will execute all obligations/duties in fair way by representing my rights i/o vendor's right? His quotation is simple, professional fee, stamp duty fee is usual, disbursement fee include Registration fees for MOT (with PA noting) RM420.00, Registration fees (Individual consent & master consent) RM150.00, Travelling RM100.00, Miscellaneous RM50.00. There are no land search, bankruptcy search, affirmation on statutory declaration and etc, should those be his duty and indicate on quotation? 

Vendor is kind enough, understand there might have conflict using same lawyer, however i think there are standard manual that should abide by SPA lawyer, if it is written black and white then i would be relieved to appoint him.

Thanks for valuable time and advise  notworthy.gif
*
1. Up to you,boss.

2. Don't think much of a difference whether panel or ad hoc. Land searches and bankruptcy search must be done by your lawyer. Perhaps an oversight on his part.
merv87
post Feb 23 2012, 10:51 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 23 2012, 10:19 PM)
Which land office, chief? If in Cheras it doesn't strictly mean KL Land Office. Boundaries for titles is always different, for some weird reason.
*
Hi dariofoo,

I am not sure which Land Office but this property is located in bandar sri permaisuri. Currently I am waiting for letter of offer from bank. Engaging lawyer to prepare S&P next week. Thanks.
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post Feb 24 2012, 02:55 PM

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QUOTE(merv87 @ Feb 23 2012, 10:51 PM)
Hi dariofoo,

I am not sure which Land Office but this property is located in bandar sri permaisuri. Currently I am waiting for letter of offer from bank. Engaging lawyer to prepare S&P next week. Thanks.
*
From the title you can find out which land office.
napoli26
post Feb 24 2012, 03:39 PM

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Hi, dario, please help to check is this price reasonable? thanks. notworthy.gif rclxms.gif

Property price- RM260,000 , freehold
loan amount -RM230,900

1)SAP

A. LEGAL FEES
1 Memoranduam of Transfer (14A) RM 2,270.00
2 MBMB RM 50.00
3 Sale and Purchase Agreement FREE
RM 2,320.00


CUSTOM SERVICE TAX 6% RM 139.20

B. DISBURSEMENT(ESTIMATED) **
1 Stamp duly Sale and Purchase Agreement RM 30.00
2 Stamp duly for Memorandum of Transfer (14A) RM 2,100.00 **
3 Registration for Memoranduam of Transfer (14A) RM 260.00 **
4 Land Search RM 20.00
5 Regitration for MBMB RM 30.00
6 Swearing P.U. (A) 475 RM 8.00
7 Postage, telephone calls & incidentals RM 50.00
8 Photostat RM 50.00
9 Miscellaneous RM 50.00
10 Transport RM 50.00 RM 2,648.00

TOTAL RM 5,107.20




2)Loan agreement


A. LEGAL FEES
1 Facility Agreement RM 2,066.30
2 Charge (16A) with Chargee Annexure RM 206.63
3 Enter and withdrawal Bank Caveat RM 350.00
RM 2,622.93

CUSTOM SERVICE TAX 6% RM 157.38

B. DISBURSEMENT (ESTIMATED) **

1 Stamp Duty for Facilities Agreement [ORIGINAL] RM1155.00 RM 577.50 **
2 Stamp Duty for Facilities Agreement 10x2 RM 20.00
3 Stamp Duty for Charge Annexure 10x3 RM 30.00
4 Stamp Duty for Charge RM 30.00
5 Registration for Charge 16A RM 231.00 **
6 Swearing Fees RM 50.00
7 Stamp Duty for Surat Akuan RM 30.00
8 Registration for Enter Bank Caveat RM 100.00
9 Kebenaran Caveator RM 40.00
10 Land Search RM 40.00
11 Loan Documents PBB RM 200.00
12 Registration for Letter of Offer RM 40.00
13 Bankruptcy Search RM 30.00
14 Postage, telephone calls & incidentals RM 50.00
15 Photostat RM 50.00
16 Miscellaneous RM 50.00
17 Transport RM 50.00 RM 1,618.50

TOTAL RM 4,398.81


TheNew
post Feb 24 2012, 05:36 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 15 2012, 02:54 PM)
Actually the owner has a good case to win as your fren has signed the SPA and agreed to buy the property. The owner can compel your fren to proceed to buy it. Why would the owner be worried?

Of course the owner would want some security - that is the purpose of the 10% deposit. It would be forfeited if the purchaser does not proceed with the purchase or if the completion date is expired.

So what is the exact clause provided for in the SPA? 1 month to pay 10% failing which it will be terminated? What was the arrangement between the parties? Or is it silent?  hmm.gif

More info needed.
*
----------------------------------
Thanks so much to take time to reply.
It is because the seller's property title is still with developer and because my friend wanted to withdraw from EPF to fund her downpayment that's why the complicated started. According to lawyer the only solution is to pay the downpayment first then only withdraw from EPF..and she managed to settle by borrowing money
ycngjack1
post Feb 24 2012, 11:22 PM

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Hi dariafoo, i received this letter, what does it mean?

kindly be informed that we shall proceed with the registration of the perfection of transfer in favour of the vendor and the charge in favour of our client upon receipt of the duly adjudicated and stamped mot and other security document related thereto from XXX(firm name) and original title from developer.

are the first MOT transfer from developer to my vendor already started? or they waiting to start? my this deal is doing double transfer >.<
LightEnchanter
post Feb 25 2012, 02:17 PM

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when purchasing a subsale property, is it normally bank will assign a laywer for us to do our SAP, transfer and etc? do we need to go find one ourselves?
CrysBlue
post Feb 25 2012, 05:37 PM

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QUOTE(LightEnchanter @ Feb 25 2012, 02:17 PM)
when purchasing a subsale property, is it normally bank will assign a laywer for us to do our SAP, transfer and etc? do we need to go find one ourselves?
*
Not necessary, you can appoint own lawyer to handle S&P and Loan agreement as well. It's not like project where some of projects had been empanel by certain lawyer firm.

LightEnchanter
post Feb 26 2012, 02:55 PM

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QUOTE(CrysBlue @ Feb 25 2012, 05:37 PM)
Not necessary, you can appoint own lawyer to handle S&P and Loan agreement as well. It's not like project where some of projects had been empanel by certain lawyer firm.
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---deleted---

This post has been edited by LightEnchanter: Feb 27 2012, 11:14 AM
kok_pun
post Feb 26 2012, 03:00 PM

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QUOTE(LightEnchanter @ Feb 26 2012, 02:55 PM)
any idea where to look for good lawyers?  brows.gif
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Here!!!!


This post has been edited by kok_pun: Feb 28 2012, 06:02 PM
merv87
post Feb 26 2012, 04:34 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 24 2012, 02:55 PM)
From the title you can find out which land office.
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Hi,

It is written held in the Mukim and Daerah of Kuala Lumpur, State of Wilayah Persekutuan KL.

Does this property need to apply for consent?

Thanks.
F1meteor
post Feb 26 2012, 05:57 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jan 29 2012, 01:23 AM)
Your sis has to be agreeable to it. If she's ok, it's just her signature on the Form 14A to transfer which is needed. Issue is only with the bank - you need to check with them if they can agree to the transfer without the need to refinance. The bank as the chargee has to agree to the transfer subject to charge.

icon_rolleyes.gif
*
Hi Dario,

My current scenario is almost like this.
I signed S&P with my fiancée.
The loan is also under both of our names.

The property is a condominium which is still under constructions.
Is it possible to remove her name from the property?
Kind of like change it to me become the only owner.

Do I need a lawyer service?
Any issue with the bank?

TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 01:01 AM

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QUOTE(TheNew @ Feb 24 2012, 05:36 PM)
----------------------------------
Thanks so much to take time to reply.
It is because the seller's property title is still with developer and because my friend wanted to withdraw from EPF to fund her downpayment that's why the complicated started. According to lawyer the only solution is to pay the downpayment first then only withdraw from EPF..and she managed to settle by borrowing money
*
Ok good.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 01:02 AM

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QUOTE(ycngjack1 @ Feb 24 2012, 11:22 PM)
Hi dariafoo, i received this letter, what does it mean?

kindly be informed that we shall proceed with the registration of the perfection of transfer in favour of the vendor and the charge in favour of our client upon receipt of the duly adjudicated and stamped mot and other security document related thereto from XXX(firm name) and original title from developer.

are the first MOT transfer from developer to my vendor already started? or they waiting to start? my this deal is doing double transfer >.<
*
Waiting to start.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 01:04 AM

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QUOTE(LightEnchanter @ Feb 25 2012, 02:17 PM)
when purchasing a subsale property, is it normally bank will assign a laywer for us to do our SAP, transfer and etc? do we need to go find one ourselves?
*
You can appoint one yourself. More often than not, the real estate agent would also recommend you someone. The bank only comes in at the loan documentation stage. Some banks insist on their full panel lawyer, while some allow ad hoc basis - which means that your SPA lawyer can do the loan doc as well, if they fulfil certain conditions. It also depends on whether your SPA lawyer is interested to do it. Some firms don't do bank work at all.

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TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 01:07 AM

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QUOTE(F1meteor @ Feb 26 2012, 05:57 PM)
Hi Dario,

My current scenario is almost like this.
I signed S&P with my fiancée.
The loan is also under both of our names.

The property is a condominium which is still under constructions.
Is it possible to remove her name from the property?
Kind of like change it to me become the only owner.

Do I need a lawyer service?
Any issue with the bank?
*
Yes you do need a lawyer. You can't just remove her name, you'd have to refinance the loan and do an assignment. Check with the bank as to their requirement. The property is basically assigned to them so you can't decide anything without first consulting them.

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F1meteor
post Feb 27 2012, 09:29 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2012, 01:07 AM)
Yes you do need a lawyer. You can't just remove her name, you'd have to refinance the loan and do an assignment. Check with the bank as to their requirement. The property is basically assigned to them so you can't decide anything without first consulting them.

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Should I check with the bank first or with the lawyer first?
napoli26
post Feb 27 2012, 11:03 AM

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hi dario, morning, can help me to check above price for snp and loan agreement? is the reasonable?
Th3D3vil
post Feb 27 2012, 11:04 AM

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Hi all, in need of some legal advice.

I purchase a property back in 2010 where 3 names being inserted into the S&P agreement. I would like to know what are the cost incurred and any legal hurdles should i remove 1 party from the S&P?

Appreciate any guide/steps/process in doing so.

Thanks


LightEnchanter
post Feb 27 2012, 11:18 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2012, 01:04 AM)
You can appoint one yourself. More often than not, the real estate agent would also recommend you someone. The bank only comes in at the loan documentation stage. Some banks insist on their full panel lawyer, while some allow ad hoc basis - which means that your SPA lawyer can do the loan doc as well, if they fulfil certain conditions. It also depends on whether your SPA lawyer is interested to do it. Some firms don't do bank work at all.

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does it mean that i need 2 lawyers ? one is for SPA and another is for bank loan?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 11:24 AM

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QUOTE(napoli26 @ Feb 27 2012, 11:03 AM)
hi dario, morning, can help me to check above price for snp and loan agreement? is the reasonable?
*
Please compare with the samples in v1 of the thread. There's plenty there. Cheers.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 11:28 AM

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QUOTE(Th3D3vil @ Feb 27 2012, 11:04 AM)
Hi all, in need of some legal advice.

I purchase a property back in 2010 where 3 names being inserted into the S&P agreement. I would like to know what are the cost incurred and any legal hurdles should i remove 1 party from the S&P? 

Appreciate any guide/steps/process in doing so.

Thanks
*
Remove? You mean transfer? Is there a charge/assignment over the property in favour of a bank?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 11:30 AM

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QUOTE(LightEnchanter @ Feb 27 2012, 11:18 AM)
does it mean that i need 2 lawyers ? one is for SPA and another is for bank loan?
*
Let me put it this way - there are 2 legal paperwork - one for SPA and one for loan doc. For both you need a lawyer to do it. Then you decide whether you engage one lawyer to do both or one to do each. Read this post together with my last post.

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napoli26
post Feb 27 2012, 11:34 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2012, 11:24 AM)
Please compare with the samples in v1 of the thread. There's plenty there. Cheers.
*
ok, thnaks rclxms.gif notworthy.gif
LightEnchanter
post Feb 27 2012, 11:34 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2012, 11:30 AM)
Let me put it this way - there are 2 legal paperwork - one for SPA and one for loan doc. For both you need a lawyer to do it. Then you decide whether you engage one lawyer to do both or one to do each. Read this post together with my last post.

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*
thanks dario, which is a better practice? will it be better to appoint only one lawyer to do all the stuffs? in terms of charges and fees is it the same?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 11:39 AM

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QUOTE(LightEnchanter @ Feb 27 2012, 11:34 AM)
thanks dario, which is a better practice? will it be better to appoint only one lawyer to do all the stuffs? in terms of charges and fees is it the same?
*
Logically, it would be faster if one lawyer does both for you, as you eliminate one paper trail. In terms of charges and fees it's the same.
TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 12:05 PM

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QUOTE(merv87 @ Feb 26 2012, 04:34 PM)
Hi,

It is written held in the Mukim and Daerah of Kuala Lumpur, State of Wilayah Persekutuan KL.

Does this property need to apply for consent?

Thanks.
*
KL leasehold - some require consent, some does not. Like Taman Bandaraya in OKR is leasehold but does not require consent. Have you got a copy of the geran? It'll be stated there. Eventually a search would need to be done so it'll be stated there.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Feb 27 2012, 12:10 PM
LightEnchanter
post Feb 27 2012, 12:42 PM

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-deleted-

This post has been edited by LightEnchanter: Feb 27 2012, 02:09 PM
irise.ufall
post Feb 27 2012, 12:56 PM

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Hi Dario,

My loan solicitor is waiting for the documents from my SPA lawyer before the bank releases the 2nd payment

Would like to check with you:

Can i terminate them as soon as they have furnished all the documents to my loan solicitor?
TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 01:07 PM

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QUOTE(irise.ufall @ Feb 27 2012, 12:56 PM)
Hi Dario,

My loan solicitor is waiting for the documents from my SPA lawyer before the bank releases the 2nd payment

Would like to check with you:

Can i terminate them as soon as they have furnished all the documents to my loan solicitor?
*
Terminate them? Like Terminator? sweat.gif

Why? It's almost done. 90%, I'd say. You want to appoint another one and pay full scaled fees to do 10% of the balance work.
irise.ufall
post Feb 27 2012, 02:19 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2012, 01:07 PM)
Terminate them? Like Terminator?  sweat.gif

Why? It's almost done. 90%, I'd say. You want to appoint another one and pay full scaled fees to do 10% of the balance work.
*
I believe u can still recall my story right? cry.gif

The reasons behind why i want to terminate them are bcoz:
1) They hv been dragging & dragging. I signed the SPA on May 2011, bank paid the 1st payment on early of Jan 2012, until today they still cant send the docs like original strata title & etc to my loan solicitor.
2) Main reason - my marked up in the SPA. It was agreed between the Vendor & myself (letter drafted by the SPA lawyer). Now i m worried that i couldnt get back my marked-up money bcoz the SPA lawyer do not have a physical office. They only hv a virture office. So if they run away with my money, i am gone.

So my intention is to terminate them (i am very sorry to use this word but if they really can act professionally, i won't be so fed up already cry.gif ) as soon as they handed over all the docs to my Loan Solicitor. So that the bank will pay directly to my new SPA lawyer instead of them.

Or can i seek for your advice? notworthy.gif


Th3D3vil
post Feb 27 2012, 02:59 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2012, 12:28 PM)
Remove? You mean transfer? Is there a charge/assignment over the property in favour of a bank?
*
HI Dariofoo,

Not transfer. I wish to remove 1 of party name.
Not sure what you mean by charge/assignment over the property.

I just would like to know how to initiate such legal mean in removing the party name from the S&P doc.

Thanks
it.fusion
post Feb 27 2012, 03:39 PM

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Hi Dariofoo,

My current status of purchasing property from owner are on my S&P lawyer sent out redemption letter to seller's bank.. My loan lawyer stated pending for the letter to proceed further..

May i know how many days/weeks it is usually takes before seller bank reply with the redemption letter ? and from this stage onwards.. how long it does takes before the title are changed to me.. or how long will it take more to complete the overall task..approx. thanks

merv87
post Feb 27 2012, 05:25 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2012, 12:05 PM)
KL leasehold - some require consent, some does not. Like Taman Bandaraya in OKR is leasehold but does not require consent. Have you got a copy of the geran? It'll be stated there. Eventually a search would need to be done so it'll be stated there.
*
Hi,

Thanks for the reply. Will check once i obtained the grant.
idoblu
post Feb 27 2012, 05:57 PM

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Sifu help!

I already calculated my loan agreement legal fees but is there other fees like power of attorney bla bla? Somehow the amount from my calculation is a thousand ringgit something more than what it should be

TSdariofoo
post Feb 27 2012, 06:11 PM

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QUOTE(irise.ufall @ Feb 27 2012, 02:19 PM)
I believe u can still recall my story right?  cry.gif

The reasons behind why i want to terminate them are bcoz:
1) They hv been dragging & dragging. I signed the SPA on May 2011, bank paid the 1st payment on early of Jan 2012, until today they still cant send the docs like original strata title & etc to my loan solicitor.
2) Main reason - my marked up in the SPA. It was agreed between the Vendor & myself (letter drafted by the SPA lawyer). Now i m worried that i couldnt get back my marked-up money bcoz the SPA lawyer do not have a physical office. They only hv a virture office. So if they run away with my money, i am gone.

So my intention is to terminate them (i am very sorry to use this word but if they really can act professionally, i won't be so fed up already cry.gif ) as soon as they handed over all the docs to my Loan Solicitor. So that the bank will pay directly to my new SPA lawyer instead of them.

Or can i seek for your advice?  notworthy.gif
*
Have you paid their fees? If you terminate them at such late stage, you would still have to pay them full legal fees as invoiced. Are you prepared to do that?

Vendor not represented?

Even if they have a virtual office what's the big deal? There's a law firm in Brickfields who shares his firm with a tailor, side-by-side, and he's a decent fellow.

You can sue the partners in their personal capacity. No need to worry about money as all firms have professional indemnity insurance, so the insurance company will pay you. How much is the marked-up amount?




irise.ufall
post Feb 27 2012, 06:16 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2012, 06:11 PM)
Have you paid their fees? If you terminate them at such late stage,  you would still have to pay them full legal fees as invoiced. Are you prepared to do that?

Vendor not represented?

Even if they have a virtual office what's the big deal? There's a law firm in Brickfields who shares his firm with a tailor, side-by-side, and he's a decent fellow.

You can sue the partners in their personal capacity. No need to worry about money as all firms have professional indemnity insurance, so the insurance company will pay you. How much is the marked-up amount?
*
The marked up value is only RM25k. The current market value of the said property has exceeded the marked-up value oledi though.

Will the insurance company pay for the 'illegal' marked-up value?


I really dunno how to deal with them oledi. Call them, no answer, never return call.

They sent email to my loan solicitor (c.c. to me) on 24/02 (but backdated the letter to 22/02) to send some of the docs to my loan solicitor but my loan solicitor has not received anything yet until today (27/02/12).

My loan solicitor sent 3 letters (1 letter & 2 reminders) to them to ask for such documents including the original strata title but they (the SPA lawyer )didnt even mention it in their letter/email.

They have been giving excuses and lies throughout the whole period oledi.

May i know what shld i do? notworthy.gif

This post has been edited by irise.ufall: Feb 27 2012, 06:34 PM

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