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 LYN Christian Fellowship V14 (Group)

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yeeck
post Feb 15 2019, 02:27 PM

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QUOTE(desmond2020 @ Feb 15 2019, 01:25 PM)
Alright.
Back to infallible of pope, what do Catholic think with the way Peter elect Matthias to replace Judas? Is that a mistake?

As for water baptism. Please consider the below verse
And while staying with them he ordered them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the promise of the Father, which, he said, "you heard from me;  for John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now."
Acts 1:4‭-‬5 ESV
https://bible.com/bible/59/act.1.4-5.ESV

So when they had come together, they asked him, "Lord, will you at this time restore the kingdom to Israel?" He said to them, "It is not for you to know times or seasons that the Father has fixed by his own authority.  But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you, and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth."
Acts 1:6‭-‬8 ESV
https://bible.com/bible/59/act.1.6-8.ESV
And let not forget what John the Baptist said in Matthew 3:11.
*
Not sure what you mean by mistake on the election of Matthias to replace Judas. Can you elaborate?

On water baptism, there is a difference between the baptism of John and the baptism of Jesus.

Acts 19:2-6: And he said to them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?" And they said, "No, we have never even heard that there is a Holy Spirit." And he said, "Into what then were you baptized?" They said, "Into John's baptism." And Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in the one who was to come after him, that is, Jesus." On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them; and they spoke with tongues and prophesied.

(**NOTE - Here we see the difference between the initial baptism of John the Baptist, a kind of early form of confession, and the later Baptism of Jesus, where the Holy Spirit actually comes into you and makes your body His temple.)

An important thing to remember concerning Baptism, is that Jesus Himself was Baptized to not only sanctify the waters of Baptism for us all (He was sinless, and had no need of the sacrament to remove any of His sins, therefore), but to take on our sins, through space and time, unto himself. We see this in scripture in 2 Corinthians 5:21:

"For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God."

This is why the devil tempted Him right after Baptism, because he was now carrying the sins of the world upon Himself. In Romans 6: 3-6 below, the bible says that we have been baptized into HIS DEATH, which means that the sacrament of Baptism unites us to Jesus through His crucifixion, forever:
"Do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death? We were buried therefore with him by baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life. For if we have been united with him in a death like his, we shall certainly be united with him in a resurrection like his. We know that our old self was crucified with him so that the sinful body might be destroyed, and we might no longer be enslaved to sin."
And to reiterate the Baptism-Crucifixion link, we have the following verses as well;
Mark 10:38-39: But Jesus said to them, "You do not know what you are asking. Are you able to drink the cup that I drink, or to be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized?" And they said to him, "We are able." And Jesus said to them, "The cup that I drink you will drink; and with the baptism with which I am baptized, you will be baptized;
(**NOTE - Here Jesus is talking about his crucifixion).
Galatians 2:20: I have been crucified with Christ; it is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me; and the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.
(**NOTE - Paul was never physically crucified; as a Roman citizen, he was beheaded).
Galatians 5:24: And those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the the flesh with its passions and desires.

So, most people don't realize that when they are baptized they are also being crucified with Jesus, but the good news is that being crucified with Jesus means that we also get to rise from the dead into heaven with Him, to eternal life! This being crucified with Jesus through Baptism goes a long way in helping to explain why so many bad things happen to good Christians - It's part of the crucifixion process!
desmond2020
post Feb 15 2019, 02:30 PM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 15 2019, 02:27 PM)
Not sure what you mean by mistake on the election of Matthias to replace Judas. Can you elaborate?

On water baptism, there is a difference between the baptism of John and the baptism of Jesus.

Acts 19:2-6: And he said to them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?" And they said, "No, we have never even heard that there is a Holy Spirit." And he said, "Into what then were you baptized?" They said, "Into John's baptism." And Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in the one who was to come after him, that is, Jesus." On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them; and they spoke with tongues and prophesied.

(**NOTE - Here we see the difference between the initial baptism of John the Baptist, a kind of early form of confession, and the later Baptism of Jesus, where the Holy Spirit actually comes into you and makes your body His temple.)

An important thing to remember concerning Baptism, is that Jesus Himself was Baptized to not only sanctify the waters of Baptism for us all (He was sinless, and had no need of the sacrament to remove any of His sins, therefore), but to take on our sins, through space and time, unto himself. We see this in scripture in 2 Corinthians 5:21:

"For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God."

This is why the devil tempted Him right after Baptism, because he was now carrying the sins of the world upon Himself.  In Romans 6: 3-6 below, the bible says that we have been baptized into HIS DEATH, which means that the sacrament of Baptism unites us to Jesus through His crucifixion, forever:
"Do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?  We were buried therefore with him by baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life. For if we have been united with him in a death like his, we shall certainly be united with him in a resurrection like his. We know that our old self was crucified with him so that the sinful body might be destroyed, and we might no longer be enslaved to sin."
And to reiterate the Baptism-Crucifixion link, we have the following verses as well;
Mark 10:38-39:  But Jesus said to them, "You do not know what you are asking. Are you able to drink the cup that I drink, or to be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized?"  And they said to him, "We are able." And Jesus said to them, "The cup that I drink you will drink; and with the baptism with which I am baptized, you will be baptized;
(**NOTE - Here Jesus is talking about his crucifixion).
Galatians 2:20:  I have been crucified with Christ; it is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me; and the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.
(**NOTE - Paul was never physically crucified; as a Roman citizen, he was beheaded).
Galatians 5:24:  And those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the the flesh with its passions and desires.

So, most people don't realize that when they are baptized they are also being crucified with Jesus, but the good news is that being crucified with Jesus means that we also get to rise from the dead into heaven with Him, to eternal life! This being crucified with Jesus through Baptism goes a long way in helping to explain why so many bad things happen to good Christians - It's part of the crucifixion process!
*
Well the election of Matthias is clearly a mistake because HS has later elect Paul, ie there is no 13 apostle
Roman Catholic
post Feb 16 2019, 06:15 AM

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QUOTE(desmond2020 @ Feb 15 2019, 02:30 PM)
Well the election of Matthias is clearly a mistake because HS has later elect Paul, ie there is no 13 apostle
*
What was it that made you say that it was a mistake, Desmond ?

This post has been edited by Roman Catholic: Feb 16 2019, 06:29 AM
desmond2020
post Feb 16 2019, 08:14 AM

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QUOTE(Roman Catholic @ Feb 16 2019, 06:15 AM)
What was it that made you say that it was a mistake, Desmond ?
*
First nature of The way Matthias elected via around 120 man conclave and casting lot, second Jesus has not commanded them to elect a replacement apostle third it happens before Pentecost ie arrival of HS among them fourth in book of revelation mention 12 foundation representing 12 tribes of Israel with name of apostles scribe on it respectively. Fifth Jesus has himself elected and mentor Paul later as apostle.

Just my personal.view anyway

This post has been edited by desmond2020: Feb 16 2019, 08:15 AM
Roman Catholic
post Feb 16 2019, 09:09 AM

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QUOTE(desmond2020 @ Feb 16 2019, 08:14 AM)
First nature of The way Matthias elected via around 120 man conclave and casting lot, second Jesus has not commanded them to elect a replacement apostle third it happens before Pentecost ie arrival of HS among them fourth in book of revelation mention 12 foundation representing 12 tribes of Israel with name of apostles scribe on it respectively. Fifth Jesus has himself elected and mentor Paul later as apostle.

Just my personal.view anyway
*
Ok fair enough I understand.

Throughout Scriptures its clear that man has to work in unison with God. After all it is His plan to begin with. What that only fortifies is this, although it was erroneous man to act alone, God simply turned that negative into a positive for His glory.

Let's see if this now is a self-made teaching of mine, shall we ?

Being born again is to be continually led by the Spirit of God and that's infallible. Just as our Lord Jesus Christ was led by God's Spirit throughout the Gospel, every Word, every teaching is true & completely flawless, with my limited basic level of understanding taught by our Teacher Himself.

Likewise it is with anyone who is continuously led by the Spirit of God, infallible. The real question here, is how many of us are being led by the Spirit of God continuously ? Because without the Spirit of God, anyone is fallible at that point in time.

This post has been edited by Roman Catholic: Feb 16 2019, 09:11 AM
yeeck
post Feb 18 2019, 03:29 PM

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QUOTE(desmond2020 @ Feb 16 2019, 08:14 AM)
First nature of The way Matthias elected via around 120 man conclave and casting lot, second Jesus has not commanded them to elect a replacement apostle third it happens before Pentecost ie arrival of HS among them fourth in book of revelation mention 12 foundation representing 12 tribes of Israel with name of apostles scribe on it respectively. Fifth Jesus has himself elected and mentor Paul later as apostle.

Just my personal.view anyway
*
Paul is not considered one of the 12 original apostles based on the criteria of Acts 1:21-22. Matthias is the replacement of Judas, and nowhere did Scripture nor Tradition said it was a mistake in choosing Matthias, but again, some later strange Protestant group ideas.....
desmond2020
post Feb 18 2019, 04:21 PM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 18 2019, 03:29 PM)
Paul is not considered one of the 12 original apostles based on the criteria of Acts 1:21-22. Matthias is the replacement of Judas, and nowhere did Scripture nor Tradition said it was a mistake in choosing Matthias, but again, some later strange Protestant group ideas.....
*
Well just say it is pretty weird because Matthias is unique among apostles as he is only one not appointed by Jesus

And further I don't know if Peter's act is inspired during the time between Jesus lifted to heaven and HS descend among them. And quick clearly Jesus give a command for them to wait for arrival of HS, ie not elelcting a replacement apostle
yeeck
post Feb 18 2019, 04:53 PM

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QUOTE(desmond2020 @ Feb 18 2019, 04:21 PM)
Well just say it is pretty weird because Matthias is unique among apostles as he is only one not appointed by Jesus

And further I don't know if Peter's act is inspired during the time between Jesus lifted to heaven and HS descend among them. And quick clearly Jesus give a command for them to wait for arrival of HS, ie not elelcting a replacement apostle
*
Jesus didn't say not to elect a replacement apostle. Also, Barnabas, was also called an apostle, but not part of the original 12.
prophetjul
post Feb 20 2019, 01:12 PM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 15 2019, 11:08 AM)
This raises the question as to how to translate the word at issue (kecharitōmenē) in the first place.  The word is a form of the verb charitoō. This word should look familiar, even to non-Greek speakers. It’s where we get our word charisma, which refers to someone’s gift as a leader. In ancient Greek, the companion noun was charis, the stock New Testament word for grace. Although it’s sometimes translated as favor, it overwhelmingly is rendered in the King James Bible as grace. (Out of 156 instances, 132 read as grace, while just 7 are favor. Most of the rest appear to be translated as a form of thanks.)

We are right to suspect that charitoō then has something to do with grace as we understand it. And that’s exactly how it’s defined. Vine’s Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words defines the verb this way: “to endow with charis, primarily signified ‘to make graceful or gracious,’ … ‘to cause to find favor.’” Thayer’s Greek Lexicon puts it this way: “to pursue with grace, to compass with favor.” Another dictionary drops “favor” altogether and gives us this definition: “kecharitōmenē … means endowed with grace.”

However, these definitions do leave it open-ended as to whether grace or favor is the way to go. Although favor and grace have related meanings they remain distinct. In a theological context, grace is a free and unmerited gift of God. Grace is something given to someone. Usually we think of a favor as something done for someone else. So which way do we go in Luke 1? Unlike the noun, the verb is used only one other time in the New Testament, so we don’t have too many verses to guide us on how it’s used. (For the record, the other instance is Ephesians 1:6 and the most common translation is grace.)

Fortunately, the text does not leave us hanging. After Mary’s initial apprehension, the angel tells her, “Fear not, Mary, for thou hast found grace with God” (Luke 1:30). Grace here is the noun charis, which we’ve already established usually means grace and only rarely favor (in the New Testament at least). If Luke 1:28 was unclear, Luke 1:30 is our clarification. This should settle it. We’re talking about grace.


Now our question becomes: How much grace did Mary receive and when? The dogma of the Immaculate Conception holds that Mary was fully graced from the moment of conception, that through the grace of God, Mary’s life was one without sin. Is this supported by Luke 1:28?

For the answer, we now turn from the dictionary to the grammar book. As mentioned above kecharitōmenē is a form of the verb charitoō. Our focus will be on the tense. A verb tense at the most basic level refers to the time of action. “I wrote an article” is an example of the past tense. “I am writing” is present and “I will write” is future. Now in ancient Greek there were more than just these three simple tenses. There were other tenses that tell us something about the action done and its enduring impact. And that’s where things get exciting.

Kecharitōmenē is the “perfect” tense of charitoō. According to Herbert Weir Smyth’s A Greek Grammar for Colleges—still the bible for Greek grammar today—defines the perfect tense this way: “The perfect denotes a completed action the effects of which still continue in the present.” So Mary received grace in some complete way and remains completed in that grace. We’re coming awfully close to the Catholic dogma.

Or are we reading too much into this? Here’s the conclusion two scholars draw: “It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitōmenē as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace” (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament).

Indeed, to say that Mary was “completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace” is not only a restatement of the dogma of the Immaculate Conception, it also points forward to the traditional teaching that Mary is a “Mediatrix of all graces” (yet to be dogmatically defined). If anything, “full of grace,” seems to understate what the Greek text is saying. But “filled completely, perfectly, and enduringly” is a mouthful, so it’s easy to see why the Vulgate went with the more poetic approximation “full of grace.” Don't forget, St Jerome was translating into Latin which was the lingua franca then.

By turns the dictionary, concordance, and grammar argue for the Catholic reading of Luke 1:28.

Three facts from the narrative seal the case. First, as St. Thomas Aquinas notes in his commentary on the Hail Mary, the angel’s reverent salutation of Mary is a complete reversal of roles from the Old Testament, in which men revered angels. Such reverence was due to angels because angels have a spiritual and incorruptible nature, are more familiar with God, and “partake most fully of the divine light.” In revering Mary, then, then Angel Gabriel is showing that she surpasses the angels in these three aspects. Only someone “full of grace” could merit such extraordinary reverence.

Second, in the Greek text, as Aquinas points out, Mary’s name is missing from Luke 1:28. The text literally reads as “Hail, full of grace.” Mary has become so “full of grace” that it has consumed her completely—it has become more who she is even than even her very name.

This omission makes the most sense if we translate the verb as grace and not as favor. A favor does not involve the interior man (or woman). It chiefly is concerned with their exterior circumstances. I can do a favor for you without changing who you are (for example, buy you a car, or get you a job). God’s grace changes who we are. Grace implies a spiritual state or interior condition (hence the phrase “state of grace”). One can imagine, then, that someone could be in such an intensive state of grace that it defines their whole personality.

Third, Mary’s reaction to the angel’s words is a giant clue as to their significance. Here is the text again (Douay-Rheims translation):

[28] And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. [29] Who having heard, was troubled at his saying, and thought with herself what manner of salutation this should be. [30] And the angel said to her: Fear not, Mary, for thou hast found grace with God.

[31] Behold thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and shalt bring forth a son; and thou shalt call his name Jesus. [32] He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the most High; and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of David his father; and he shall reign in the house of Jacob for ever. [33] And of his kingdom there shall be no end. [34] And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man? [35] And the angel answering, said to her: The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the most High shall overshadow thee. And therefore also the Holy which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

This is a lot to take in. Mary is “blessed among women.” Her son will be the “Son of the Most High” and a king after David. And she will do this while remaining a virgin. Instead, she will conceive by the “power of the most High.” Terror-inducing words for any mortal ears, not to mention an unmarried teenage virgin. Readers may recall that Mary was “troubled” by the words of the angel. Your quote of Luke 11 as if trying to make Scripture verses contradict each other is at least ill-advised. But Catholics do not see contradiction in Scripture.

But go back and read at what point she was “troubled.” Mary’s apprehension comes before the angel foretells the birth of Christ and His kingdom. It comes after just this one line: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. One wonders, were this just an act of divine “favor” what would be so troubling to Mary? Favors are always welcomed, never feared. Divine grace, on the other hand, is powerful, awesome, even fearsome.

The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception can indeed be “troubling.” Our best response, however, is to follow the example of Mary and accept God’s words in faith.
*
Greek word:

Κεχαριτωμένη (source)

Transliteration:

Kecharitomene

Translation:

Literally,” You, who have been graced” (You that are highly favored, KJV)

English:

You (Second Person Singular)

Have (present tense)

Been (past participle of “to be”)

Graced (past participle of “to grace”).

Greek:

KE – perfect tense (prior event/occurrence/happening that is still existing/occurring or happening now)

CHARITO – a gift, something that is free or unmerited

MENE – a female receiver not giver.

The Latin translation “gratia plena” (full of grace, as found in Dhouay-Rheims) is not a literal translation from the Greek.

The Greek word κεχαριτωμένη in reference to Mary denotes her status as someone who "found favor or grace with God" (Luke 1:30).

The translation "full of grace" (from the Latin Vulgate's "gratia plena")is valid:

"It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitomene as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace." (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament)

'Highly favoured' (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians 1:6 . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena [full of grace] "is right, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast received'; wrong, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast to bestow' " (A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, p. 14)

In Catholic Bibles (containing the Deuterocanonicals),there is kecharitomene (a girl who is full of grace ~ Luke 1:28) and kecharitomeno (a boy who is full of grace ~ Sirach 18:17 LXX).

Are these two conceive immaculately too without sin?


There is no proper translation which suggests "FULL OF GRACE" as RCC is making it out to be.
And therefore an ungodly doctrine of "Immaculate conception"

Doing so is pagan worship of a creature. An Abomination to God.
yeeck
post Feb 20 2019, 03:21 PM

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QUOTE(prophetjul @ Feb 20 2019, 01:12 PM)
Greek word:

Κεχαριτωμένη (source)

Transliteration:

Kecharitomene

Translation:

Literally,” You, who have been graced” (You that are highly favored, KJV)

English:

You (Second Person Singular)

Have (present tense)

Been (past participle of “to be”)

Graced (past participle of “to grace”).

Greek:

KE – perfect tense (prior event/occurrence/happening that is still existing/occurring or happening now)

CHARITO – a gift, something that is free or unmerited

MENE – a female receiver not giver.

The Latin translation “gratia plena” (full of grace, as found in Dhouay-Rheims) is not a literal translation from the Greek.

The Greek word κεχαριτωμένη in reference to Mary denotes her status as someone who "found favor or grace with God" (Luke 1:30).

The translation "full of grace" (from the Latin Vulgate's "gratia plena")is valid:

"It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitomene as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace." (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament)

'Highly favoured' (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians 1:6 . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena [full of grace] "is right, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast received'; wrong, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast to bestow' " (A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, p. 14)

In Catholic Bibles (containing the Deuterocanonicals),there is kecharitomene (a girl who is full of grace ~ Luke 1:28) and kecharitomeno (a boy who is full of grace ~ Sirach 18:17 LXX).

Are these two conceive immaculately too without sin? 
There is no proper translation which suggests  "FULL OF GRACE" as RCC is making it out to be.
And therefore an ungodly doctrine of "Immaculate conception"

Doing so is pagan worship of a creature. An Abomination to God.
*
Sirach 18:17 is usually translated as gracious man or justified man. Your error is thinking Luke 1:28 is a proof-text of the Immaculate Conception when it is merely a support, albeit an extremely strong one. But you will not see that word scream “Immaculate Conception!” The authority for the Immaculate Conception is the Church, and the authority of the Church is DEFINITELY given in Scripture. If you read Sirach 18 in context and in entirety, it points to the good works exhorted by the father to his son. On the other hand, Luke 1 points to the favour given to Mary, not on her own account, but by the grace/gift of God.

I've also explained the teaching of the Church that the just baptized are free from sin.

Every Christian once in heaven will be perfected by God’s grace. However, only of Mary, and of “her seed,” which is Jesus Christ, is it said that there will be enmity between them and Satan. Since Jesus is God and since holiness is an aspect of His Nature, he has that enmity by nature. Where as with Mary, she has it as a gift.

Genesis 3:14-15
“And the LORD God said unto the serpent … I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.” KJV

Of which woman’s seed was He born ? The answer of course is Mary. Jesus even goes on to identify Mary as the “Woman” in John 2:4 , 19:26, and also see Revelation 12: 1, 5, while Protestants think that Jesus is insulting His own mother! Gosh!

If there had ever been a time when Mary was under Satan’s domination through personal or original sin, then there would not be a real enmity between her and Satan. Therefore, by virtue of the grace He gave her, God put Mary in opposition to Satan from the beginning and throughout her life. Notice that God the Father says that He will put the enmity between her and Satan. Only in God, and by His gift of grace, also in Mary, can it be said that there is enmity with Satan because only in them is their entire life opposed to Satan.

Therefore, since Mary had an enmity between her and Satan, and even though she was a descendant of Adam and would have contracted Original Sin, she was saved from the stain of it by the merits of Jesus Christ from the first moment of her life.

This post has been edited by yeeck: Feb 20 2019, 03:23 PM
SUSMr. WongSF
post Feb 21 2019, 02:40 AM

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If you are preaching or teaching religion before being perfected and specifically authorized, sent, and ordered the exact words to speak by Christ, to progress spiritually, you must stop.

Every word you preach or teach, that is not heard from the Spirit immediately before speaking, puts condemnation on you, and until perfected and authorized, your teachings will not be true.

From the Word of the Lord within:

"When you speak words from yourself, it doesn't matter what you say; you say them with the wrong spirit, and they don't reach the heart of your listeners.

A word spoken from the Spirit requires you to hear what the Spirit says to you; speak only what you are told to speak.

All and only words from Him are to be spoken; the purpose is to prevent anyone from going out without authority, which you can see creates problems."

However true your words are, unless they are spoken with His Spirit in control of your mouth, your words do not reach the heart of your listeners; such words are idle (non-edifying), and we shall give an account for all non-edifying words that come out of our mouth.

Don't even talk about God or Christ until authorized by Him.


Shalom
thomasthai
post Feb 21 2019, 04:25 AM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 20 2019, 03:21 PM)

Genesis 3:14-15
“And the LORD God said unto the serpent … I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.” KJV

*
Sorry just needed to interject here on why we don't think 'the woman' here is Mary.

First of all, the context here is only Adam and the woman.

The woman here did not have a name until after God pronounced the curse.

Adam named the woman Eve right after God's curse.

QUOTE
Now the man called his wife's name Eve, because she was the mother of all the living.
Genesis 3:20 NASB
https://bible.com/bible/100/gen.3.20.NASB


Adam knows that God, by 'the woman' meant Eve, that's why he named her Eve the mother of all living. This showed that Adam believed what God said from then on.

In Genesis 4:1, we see Eve had a child, and she thought the child was the Redeemer;

QUOTE
Now the man had relations with his wife Eve, and she conceived and gave birth to Cain, and she said, "I have gotten a manchild with the help of the Lord ."
Genesis 4:1 NASB
https://bible.com/bible/100/gen.4.1.NASB


Eve knew that 'the woman' was meant to be her.

She believed in what God said.

So clearly, both Adam and Eve knew that God meant Eve by 'the woman'.

Cheers.

prophetjul
post Feb 21 2019, 08:38 AM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 20 2019, 03:21 PM)
Sirach 18:17 is usually translated as gracious man or justified man. Your error is thinking Luke 1:28 is a proof-text of the Immaculate Conception when it is merely a support, albeit an extremely strong one. But you will not see that word scream “Immaculate Conception!” The authority for the Immaculate Conception is the Church, and the authority of the Church is DEFINITELY given in Scripture. If you read Sirach 18 in context and in entirety, it points to the good works exhorted by the father to his son. On the other hand, Luke 1 points to the favour given to Mary, not on her own account, but by the grace/gift of God.

I've also explained the teaching of the Church that the just baptized are free from sin.

Every Christian once in heaven will be perfected by God’s grace. However, only of Mary, and of “her seed,” which is Jesus Christ, is it said that there will be enmity between them and Satan. Since Jesus is God and since holiness is an aspect of His Nature, he has that enmity by nature. Where as with Mary, she has it as a gift.

Genesis 3:14-15
“And the LORD God said unto the serpent … I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.” KJV

Of which woman’s seed was He born ? The answer of course is Mary. Jesus even goes on to identify Mary as the “Woman” in John 2:4 , 19:26, and also see Revelation 12: 1, 5, while Protestants think that Jesus is insulting His own mother! Gosh!

If there had ever been a time when Mary was under Satan’s domination through personal or original sin, then there would not be a real enmity between her and Satan. Therefore, by virtue of the grace He gave her, God put Mary in opposition to Satan from the beginning and throughout her life. Notice that God the Father says that He will put the enmity between her and Satan. Only in God, and by His gift of grace, also in Mary, can it be said that there is enmity with Satan because only in them is their entire life opposed to Satan.

Therefore, since Mary had an enmity between her and Satan, and even though she was a descendant of Adam and would have contracted Original Sin, she was saved from the stain of it by the merits of Jesus Christ from the first moment of her life.
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You were the one to bring along immaculate conception.

You may twist what ever the translations. The fact is the phrase was the same in Sirach. Are they full of grace too? Or do you find it to your inconvenience to translate as such?


Baptism in itself brings NOTHING. Having faith in the Lord Jesus and being born again brings LIFE.

Many RCCs I see goes through whatever traditions, yet their lives are void of Christ. They cheat and corrupt in their daily living.
Is that a sign of REPENTANCE? Nope.
TBF so do many non RCCs. goers.

Are they born again?

We ALL have holiness as imputed to us as a GIFT, not just Mary. Thrugh the faith in the righteousness of Jesus, His holiness is imputed to us as born again believers.
Holiness and righteousness go hand in hand.

2 Cor 5
21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.

That prophecy is about the messiah who will be born of a woman. That God has already has His deliverance plan in mind.
And God was referring to Eve, the mother of all mankind.

See how the RCC tries to accommodate their pagan doctrines?

What did Jesus say about the blessedness of a mother? Vs obeying God's word?

Maybe you glossed over........

Luke 11
27 And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked.

28 But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.

Which the RCC is consistently rebelling against. His word and instructions.

3Thou shalt have no other gods before me.
4Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness [of any thing] that [is] in heaven above, or that [is] in the earth beneath, or that [is] in the water under the earth: 5Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them:

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This post has been edited by prophetjul: Feb 21 2019, 08:55 AM
yeeck
post Feb 21 2019, 02:29 PM

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QUOTE(thomasthai @ Feb 21 2019, 04:25 AM)
Sorry just needed to interject here on why we don't think 'the woman' here is Mary.

First of all, the context here is only Adam and the woman.

The woman here did not have a name until after God pronounced the curse.

Adam named the woman Eve right after God's curse.
Adam knows that God, by 'the woman' meant Eve, that's why he named her Eve the mother of all living. This showed that Adam believed what God said from then on.

In Genesis 4:1, we see Eve had a child, and she thought the child was the Redeemer;
Eve knew that 'the woman' was meant to be her.

She believed in what God said.

So clearly, both Adam and Eve knew that God meant Eve by 'the woman'.

Cheers.
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The Old Testament prefigures the New. God in His infinite wisdom and mercy from all eternity already has a plan for mankind's redemption even before the Fall.

In 1 Corinthians 15:45, Paul compares Jesus to Adam: Thus it is written, "The first man Adam became a living being"; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit.” In Genesis 1, we learn that Adam was formed out of the dust of the earth by God. God breathed the breath of life into Adam. The perfect and sin-free Adam eventually fell in Genesis 3 by disobeying God, accepting the lies of the devil (about not dying and being like God), and eating the forbidden fruit from a tree, which allowed sin and damnation to enter the world. The perfect and sin-free Jesus, who said that he is the bridegroom of man in Matthew 9:15, also declared Himself to be The Bread of Life in John 6. He said that we must eat His flesh and drink His blood to have eternal life. This reference to eating, of course, is the antidote to overcome what Adam did. Jesus, who died on the tree of life known as the cross, commands us to eat the fruit from that tree (his flesh and blood), so as to give us eternal life and to overcome the two lies of the devil to Adam. The devil said that if you eat the forbidden fruit, “You shall not die.” (LIE!). By eating the fruit of the cross, the flesh and blood of Christ, “You shall live forever,” said Jesus (TRUTH!). The devil also told Adam that if he ate the forbidden fruit, he would be like God (LIE!). Jesus said that if we eat His flesh and drink his blood, He would abide in us, and we in Him (TRUTH!).

Similarly, Mary is called "the New Eve"by the early Church Fathers. Take, for example, Justin Martyr, who wrote within a couple of generations of the apostles. In his Dialogue with Trypho the Jew (ca. A.D. 150), Justin explains that Christ destroyed Satan’s work in the same way evil originally entered the world. Evil entered through Eve while she was still a virgin; so too salvation entered through Mary while she was still a virgin. Each woman willingly participated in the act they performed. Neither was an unconscious instrument. Eve listened to the serpent and conceived death. Mary listened to the angel Gabriel and conceived life. Justin sees this clearly in Luke 1:38 when Mary says, "Let it be to me according to your word." Thus, for Justin, Christ’s becoming a man involved his Mother’s willing cooperation in undoing the tangled web of sin that Eve introduced. Also St Irenaeus, the bishop of Lyons in the second century mentioned a similar thing. In Against Heresies, Irenaeus teaches that Christ embodied Adam and all his posterity in order to redeem mankind from sin. Basing his teaching on Paul’s inspired doctrine of Christ as the Last Adam (1 Cor. 15:45), Irenaeus viewed Jesus as reversing the effects of Adam’s sin by bringing the life and righteousness that Adam lost (Rom. 5:17, 18). Irenaeus saw the obvious implication. As Eve cooperated with Adam, the covenant head of humanity, so Mary cooperated with Jesus Christ, the covenant head of the new humanity. Thus Irenaeus says that Eve "by disobeying became the cause of death for herself and the whole human race, so also Mary . . . was obedient and became the cause of salvation for herself and the whole human race" (Against Heresies 3.22.4). Later he says of these two virgins, "Just as the human race was subject to death by a virgin, it was freed by a virgin, with the virginal disobedience balanced by virginal obedience" (ibid., 5.19.1).

You said "In Genesis 4:1, we see Eve had a child, and she thought the child was the Redeemer;
Eve knew that 'the woman' was meant to be her. She believed in what God said. So clearly, both Adam and Eve knew that God meant Eve by 'the woman'."

Probably. For Eve is not God, but if we see the harmony of Scripture in salvation history in both the Old and the New Testaments, very clearly the woman God refers to can only be Mary.
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post Feb 21 2019, 02:49 PM

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QUOTE(prophetjul @ Feb 21 2019, 08:38 AM)
You were the one to bring along immaculate conception.

> Because people like you deny it even though it is believed by the early Church, thinking that modern folk are far more enlightened than previous Christians..you also won’t find the word “Trinity” in the Bible either. That doesn’t mean it’s not biblical.

You may twist what ever the translations. The fact is the phrase was the same in Sirach. Are they full of grace too? Or do you find it to your inconvenience to translate as such?
Baptism in itself brings NOTHING. Having faith in the Lord Jesus and being born again brings LIFE.

> Then you deny the words of Jesus as shown previously. I rest my case.

Many RCCs I see goes through whatever traditions, yet their lives are void of Christ. They cheat and corrupt in their daily living.
Is that a sign of REPENTANCE?  Nope.
TBF so do many non RCCs. goers.

> Just because they are baptized doesn't mean that they can't fall again.

Are they born again?

> They were when baptized, and they fell afterwards. So? Is your definition of being born again = impeccability or inability to sin?

We ALL have holiness as imputed to us as a GIFT, not just Mary. Thrugh the faith in the righteousness of  Jesus, His holiness is imputed to us as born again believers.
Holiness and righteousness go hand in hand.

>Mary obtained the gift at the very beginning of her life, the rest of us at a later stage in life. Whether or not we persevere in the state of grace, that is another matter.

2 Cor 5
21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.

That prophecy is about the messiah who will be born of a woman. That God has already has His deliverance plan in mind.
And God was referring to Eve, the mother of all mankind.

> Which woman but Mary? Just as the New Adam, Jesus, never fell into sin as the first Adam did, it is fitting that Mary would likewise repair the old Eve’s sin with perfect obedience. Eve was given the title “mother of all living” (Gen 3:20) in the OT, and Mary became the mother of the beloved apostle at the foot of the cross in the NT. Notice that the woman is the mother of a great multitude: those who follow Jesus. Eve was mother of all who possess natural life, but the new Eve is mother of all who possess the supernatural life in Christ.

See how the RCC tries to accommodate their pagan doctrines? 

> Only if you wish to remain blind and ignorant to the facts presented before you.

What did Jesus say about the blessedness of a mother?  Vs obeying God's word?

Maybe you glossed over........

Luke 11
27 And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked.

28 But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.

> That's why I mentioned that Protestants like you contradict Scripture as if making Jesus rude to His Mother and thus commit a sin of not honouring one's parents. For Catholics, all the apparent contradictions are in harmony actually.

3Thou shalt have no other gods before me.
4Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness [of any thing] that [is] in heaven above, or that [is] in the earth beneath, or that [is] in the water under the earth: 5Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them:

> Sigh, mentioned before the different degrees of veneration. The stiffnecked and hardened of heart will always refuse to see.

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This post has been edited by yeeck: Feb 21 2019, 02:50 PM
thomasthai
post Feb 22 2019, 07:24 AM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 21 2019, 02:29 PM)
» Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... «

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When we study how to interpret scriptures, one of the most important principle is scripture is the only interpreter of scriptures.

The objective truths in scripture cannot be drawn externally.

Besides the church fathers, you can't really find anything in scriptures that suggest that the woman is really Mary.

Even if you are talking about type prophecies, Jesus said the all scriptures predicted Him, not Mary.

All the epistles mentioned (almost, if any) nothing about Mary. The RC doctrines about Mariology were really drawn from really obscure texts, and built on error upon errors from church fathers.

If we interpret scriptures like that, you can really make scriptures say whatever you wanna say.

But of course, the RC church just make their interpretation infallible to avoid any scrutiny.

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post Feb 22 2019, 11:40 AM

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QUOTE(thomasthai @ Feb 22 2019, 07:24 AM)
When we study how to interpret scriptures, one of the most important principle is scripture is the only interpreter of scriptures.

The objective truths in scripture cannot be drawn externally.

Besides the church fathers, you can't really find anything in scriptures that suggest that the woman is really Mary.

Even if you are talking about type prophecies, Jesus said the all  scriptures predicted Him, not Mary.

All the epistles mentioned (almost, if any) nothing about Mary. The RC doctrines about Mariology were really drawn from really obscure texts, and built on error upon errors from church fathers.

If we interpret scriptures like that, you can really make scriptures say whatever you wanna say.

But of course, the RC church just make their interpretation infallible to avoid any scrutiny.
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That's the main problem. To say the scripture interprets scripture. Even between all of us here differ when reading scripture. That's why many see contradictions, and not harmony in scripture. No, says 2 Peter 3:16. Christ gave teaching authority to His Apostles and their successors (Matt 16:19, 18:18, Mark 16:15, Luke 10:16). “Authority” does not mean “power” but “right”—“author’s rights.” The Church has authority only because she is under authority, the authority of her Author and Lord. “No one can give himself the mandate and the mission to proclaim the Gospel. The one sent by the Lord does not speak and act on his own authority, but by virtue of Christ’s authority” (CCC 875).

The authority of the Church has been necessary, for example, for us to know the truth of the Trinity. This most distinctively Christian doctrine of all, the one that reveals the nature of God himself, the nature of ultimate reality, was revealed by God clearly only to the Church. It was not clearly revealed to his chosen people, the Jews. It is not clearly defined in the New Testament. God waited to reveal it to the Church.

"Even if you are talking about type prophecies, Jesus said the all scriptures predicted Him, not Mary."

The role of Mary is dependent on Christ in much the same manner as the role of Eve was dependent on Adam. God, who was no feminist, made salvation dependent on the action of a Man, just as He punished our race because of the sin of a man. Here we need to repeat what many are probably unaware of, namely, that it was Adam’s sin, not Eve’s , which is the original sin. Saint Paul reminds us that, in the order of time, the woman sinned first: “For Adam was first formed; then Eve. And Adam was not seduced; but the woman, being seduced, was in the transgression” (1 Tim. 2:13-14). But he also lets us know that Adam’s fall was the fall of the entire race: “For by a man came death: and by a man the resurrection of the dead. And as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all shall be made alive” (1 Cor. 15:21-22). For Catholics, Adam’s exclusive role in the original sin is dogma. The same is true for many Protestants.

Now, while God was no feminist, He did give woman a special place. Eve was, for Adam, a “helpmate like unto himself” (Gen. 2:18). When she sinned and encouraged him to sin, she failed in that role. All this goes to show, that while Adam’s was the original sin, Eve had a real, active, and causal role. Invert that in the case of the New Adam. The work of redemption was the work of Christ. But He had a helpmate.

The concept of the New Eve taught by the Church Fathers is a case in point because it is a summary and natural extension of Paul’s doctrine of Christ as the New Adam. Irenaeus based his teaching on Ephesians 1:10, where Paul says that God sent Christ "as a plan [oikonomia] for the fullness of time, to unite all things in him, things in heaven and things on earth." For Paul and Irenaeus, God arranged salvation history in such a way that all reality would be incarnated in his Son, Jesus Christ. Everything was put under Christ’s headship (thus re-capitulate). This divine arrangement meant not only that Christ by his obedience reversed the effects of Adam’s sin but also that Mary by her obedience reversed the effects of Eve’s rebellion. The only difference is that Mary’s obedience was derived from her Son’s obedience. She was made a part of his saving plan because Christ made her "full of grace" (Luke 1:28). In Adam and Eve, the human race lost its sonship, and part of Christ’s mission was to restore that filial relationship with the Father. By saying that Christ was born "from the woman," Paul is linking both the Son and the woman with Adam and Eve. Christ the Son is obviously linked to Adam. The only woman who could be linked with Eve is Mary. So, Paul is saying that Mary participated in the Redemption by giving birth to Jesus in the opposite but parallel way that Eve participated in the Fall of man into sin. In our view, the Church Fathers were simply drawing out the implications of what Paul was teaching.

The early Church Fathers are the most direct link to what the early Christians did and believed in. It is haughty and prideful indeed to think that we are closer to the earlier Christians that the early Church Fathers who have the Apostles as their direct teachers after Christ's ascension. OK since you won't accept the Church Fathers, let's have St John the Apostle to tell in the Gospel:

John begins his Gospel in words familiar to first-century Jewish ears: “In the beginning” (John 1:1). In the exact words the author of the creation story used (Gen 1:1), He brought his readers back to the creation, where God created the universe in six days. On the seventh God rested. His work was perfect (at least until Adam and Eve happened).

And if we look carefully, we see John continue his creation story. In verses 29, 35, and 43 of John 1, “The next day” this happened; “The next day” that happened; “The next day”… you get the point. These three verses count from the first day to the fourth day. And then chapter 2 begins, “on the third day” (John 2:1).

by the “third day”, John, “cannot mean the third day from the beginning, since he has already proceeded past that point in his narrative. He must mean the third day from the fourth day, which brings us to the seventh day – and then John stops counting.” So chapter 2 of John’s Gospel brings readers back to that day of perfection and rest. You might imagine that first century Jews would be eager to see what happens on this day.

“On the third day there was a marriage at Cana in Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there” (John 2:1). But when they run out of wine, Mary prompts Jesus: “They have no wine” (v. 3), to which Jesus replies, “O woman, what have you to do with me? My hour has not yet come” (v. 4). Then Mary turns to the servants, saying, “Do whatever he tells you” (v. 5). And at Mary’s request, Jesus turned the water into wine, his first public miracle.

Now some people will read this and question if Jesus being rude to his mom when he called her woman. After all, it wouldn’t be very respectful if I were to address my mother as “woman.”

First of all, Jesus addressed Mary as “woman” when he hung, dying on the cross (John 19:26). Could he possibly have meant to disrespect his mother in his final moments? I think not. And secondly, if Jesus were to disrespect his mother, he would be breaking the commandment to honor his mother (Ex 20:12), which would be sinful.4

Why then on the seventh day does John refer to Mary as “woman” when the other Gospels address her as “Mary” or “Jesus’ mother”? With the striking parallels to the creation story, we may suspect that John is associating Mary with Eve, who was first “woman”.

But let’s not stop here. Our step takes us to the foot of the cross.

John tells us that standing by Jesus on the cross “were his mother, and his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Mag′dalene,” (John 19:25), as well as the beloved apostle.

Now some might find it interesting that St. Paul draws a connection between Christ hanging on the cross, and a quote from the Old Testament: “Cursed be every one who hangs on a tree” (Gal 3:13, also see Deut 21:23). In its proper sense, the “tree” isn’t a direct reference to the tree in the Garden. Though in Paul’s mind, Jesus is the new Adam who undid the consequences of the first Adam’s sin (Rom 5:14). Prompted by the serpent, the fall of mankind took place around the tree in the garden. Standing around the new tree (the cross), the new Adam, the woman’s seed, defeated sin and death, and ultimately crushed the head of the ancient serpent (Gen 3:15).

Though I’ll point out that Adam was not alone at the first tree. There, as under the cross, stood the woman, Eve. And John was sure to include this, a detail that no other Gospel writer included: “when Jesus saw his mother, and the disciple whom he loved standing near, he said to his mother, ‘Woman, behold, your son!’ Then he said to the disciple, ‘Behold, your mother!’” (John 19:26-27, emphasis added). Again, woman stood with the new Adam as he battled sin and death. And just as around the tree woman was made mother of all the living (Gen 3:20), we see the new woman become mother of the beloved apostle (John 19:27).

Then John tells us that Jesus, “bowed his head and gave up his spirit” (John 19:30). As Eve watched as Adam ate of the tree, bringing death to the whole world, now Mary watched as her beloved son died on the tree that he might bring life (1 Cor 15:21).

As we wrap up our search, we find ourselves at the end. Literally. We end up in the book of Revelation. In the heavenly display, John sees an image of a woman clothed with the sun, standing upon the moon, with a crown of 12 stars (Rev 12:1). She is with child, and labors in anguish as she gives birth (v. 2). But another character enters the picture: a great dragon with seven heads, ten horns, and seven diadems on his heads (v. 3). The story continues:

Then the dragon stood before the woman who was about to bear a child, so that he might devour her child as soon as it was born. And she gave birth to a son, a male child, who is to rule all the nations with a rod of iron. But her child was snatched away and taken to God and to his throne; and the woman fled into the wilderness, where she has a place prepared by God. (Rev 12:4-5).

Michael the Archangel and his angels fought and defeated the dragon and his angels. “The great dragon was thrown down, that ancient serpent, who is called the Devil and Satan, the deceiver of the whole world” (Rev 12:9). Once on earth, the dragon pursued the woman, but when his attempts were thwarted, he “went off to make war on the rest of her offspring, on those who keep the commandments of God and bear testimony to Jesus” (Rev 12:17).

Okay, there’s a lot to unpack here. But we should first recall God’s words to the serpent in the garden: “I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel” (Gen 3:15).

With that in mind, who are the characters in Revelation 12? The text tells us who the dragon is: “ancient serpent, who is called the Devil and Satan, the deceiver of the whole world.” The woman’s child is Jesus, the “male child, who is to rule all the nations with a rod of iron,” (Rev 12:5). Then there is the woman. While the woman can represent the faithful of Israel who brought forth the Messiah, much more directly, she is Mary, the mother of Jesus. For Jesus is most directly the seed of Mary.

The enmity between the serpent and Eve was present between the new Eve and the dragon, as was foretold. But while the serpent had his way in the garden, it wasn’t so with the woman, Mary. Mary cooperated with God in bringing the Saviour into the world. Unlike in the garden, the serpent ultimately loses. The new Adam crushed the serpent’s head as he gave up his life on the tree.

Not only is Mary the new Eve, but she is superior to the first Eve. She isn’t just the mother of all the living, but the mother of those who have supernatural life in Jesus. Though she lived in a world tainted by sin, she was there to see the new Adam defeat sin and death. And as is fitting for the fulfillment of Eve, she was born into and remained in a state of innocence. As St. Irenaeus put it, “the knot of Eve’s disobedience was loosed by the obedience of Mary.”7 And through his obedience the new Adam, Jesus Christ, defeated sin and death.

It's fine if you don't accept such typology. But it’s my hope that some will see the biblical evidence for Mary as the new Eve, just as the Church has for centuries, long before anyone did so. The connections are subtle, yet they cannot be denied. And the implications are great.

Even Martin Luther believed in the Immaculate Conception of Mary.

"It is a sweet and pious belief that the infusion of Mary’s soul was effected without original sin; so that in the very infusion of her soul she was also purified from original sin and adorned with God’s gifts, receiving a pure soul infused by God; thus from the first moment she began to live she was free from all sin"

- Martin Luther's Sermon "On the Day of the Conception of the Mother of God," 1527.

"She is full of grace, proclaimed to be entirely without sin—something exceedingly great. For God’s grace fills her with everything good and makes her devoid of all evil.

- Martin Luther's Little Prayer Book, 1522.

Both quotations derive from Luther's writings after his break from Rome.

Mary’s portrayal as the new Eve is only one of many reasons why the Catholic Church believes that Mary was sinless. There are many other reasons. I hope that this might help us see one more reason why all generations will call her blessed (Luke 1:48).

This post has been edited by yeeck: Feb 22 2019, 11:44 AM
SUSsylar111
post Feb 23 2019, 09:29 PM

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QUOTE
The authority of the Church has been necessary, for example, for us to know the truth of the Trinity. This most distinctively Christian doctrine of all, the one that reveals the nature of God himself, the nature of ultimate reality, was revealed by God clearly only to the Church. It was not clearly revealed to his chosen people, the Jews. It is not clearly defined in the New Testament. God waited to reveal it to the Church.
I have been saying all these while. Trinity is not a biblical doctrine. Yet I was being attacked for going against it. As I have implied. Most if not all of you is going to the same destination as this guy. You see. As I implied on my videos. When it comes to the trinity. You become like rabid dogs. That is because you have the same spirit as this guy.
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post Feb 24 2019, 03:40 PM

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QUOTE(sylar111 @ Feb 23 2019, 09:29 PM)
I have been saying all these while. Trinity is not a biblical doctrine. Yet I was being attacked for going against it. As I have implied. Most if not all of you is going to the same destination as this guy.  You see. As I implied on my videos. When it comes to the trinity.  You become like rabid dogs. That is because you have the same spirit as this guy.
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To say Trinity is not biblical is incorrect because it is implicitly implied. Same goes for the other terms such as Bible, Immaculate Conception, etc.

This post has been edited by yeeck: Feb 24 2019, 03:41 PM
SUSsylar111
post Feb 24 2019, 07:18 PM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 24 2019, 03:40 PM)
To say Trinity is not biblical is incorrect because it is implicitly implied. Same goes for the other terms such as Bible, Immaculate Conception, etc.
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Your double speak is obvious here.

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