Immediately in 1 Tim 3, it says that an overseer should be the 'husband of one wife', and able to manage his own house well, with children in submission. Then comes the verse: 'for if a man does not know how to rule his own house, how will he take care of the church of God?'

Question: Since this is within the context of the local church (It reads without the need to change context since 1 Tim 2), how does one justify the part where the woman is able to 'rule' his own house well (while adhering to 1 Tim 2:11-15), and then proceed to take care of the church of God'?

Erm, which part is the problem?

Rule. Manage, take care.

And...?

The key to understand Timothy is this is a pastoral epistle.



The term 'man of God' is a technical term reserved for prophets in the OT (used 70 times to refer to prophets) and only once in the NT for Timothy.

All these are requirements for the preacher of God's word in the NT economy.

How does a woman 'rule' the home and then shepherd the church of God? Previously you mentioned that the part where the woman prohibition in teaching and having authority over man is only confined in family setting.

So where is the problem? If she's married then her head authority at home is her husband.

But if she's appointed as a pastor, then she has authority in church.

how can a wife at home, being ruled by her husband, lead the church?

Hi Alexkos,

I apologize for cutting in, I would be more interested to know if you would have anything that the woman pastor had preached instead. Example like preaching was it for or was it against Scriptures ?

Think of it this way, being a pastor is a calling and God appointed. It's a matter of divine calling.

I think you confuse, just because the husband is the head in the house, that does not makes him automatically the head in the church, unless He is called too to be a pastor then He would be head in the church.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 27 2019, 09:34 PM

I refer to Paul's express injunction against woman teaching and having authority over man (1 Tim 2:12). So, to answer your question, I don't think the Scripture approves such, especially in setting where there are men present (example: congregation where a woman tries to preach to).

The Scripture does, however, approves and in fact encourages woman to teach other women, and children. Also, the Scripture does not hinder woman to exercise gift of encouragement and discernment as in the case of Aquila and Priscilla in correcting Apollo.

This post has been edited by alexkos: Feb 27 2019, 09:39 PM

Will God issue a call contradicting with His written Word?

This post has been edited by alexkos: Feb 27 2019, 09:37 PM

Read the foot note. The word women there refers to ...or Wife.


Of course not.

We'll move to 1 Cor 11, on the natural order that God has instituted:

Paul wrote:

head of every man is Christ;
head of woman is man;
head of Christ is God

Since there's no argument that the head of Christ is God, and the head of man is Christ, so also is head of woman is man.

How can a woman, married or unmarried, exercise pastoral gift when there is man present?

Exercising pastoral gift includes preaching God's authoritative word and prays pastoral prayer. Can she, being a woman, represent the church and pray to God in the pastoral sense?

again, read the foot note


Or of the wife is her husband

I can't find the footnote on 'wife' in my Bible, and also on Biblegateway

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?searc...+2&version=NKJV
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?searc...11&version=NKJV

It's in NIV

And in the Greek, the word = guné which can refer to Woman or wife.

Intepretation leans more towards the wife, why? As I've said, why put in the word "childbearing" in the same chapter?

Child bearing = Wife?

No?

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 27 2019, 10:07 PM

Isn't correcting also a teaching?

Good observation. Does Aquila and Priscilla correcting Apollo establish the norm that woman can correct and teach man, and thereby ignore Paul's injunction in 1 Tim 2?

Good observation. Does it mean that woman who are not married and bearing child couldn't be saved as per 1 Tim 2:15?