What is the different between this WACCg = Keu x [1-(Dt/Vd+Ve)] and this formula WACCg = Keg*E/(E+D) + Kd (1-t)*D/E+D?
Sorry.. i ask to many things.. coz i need to fully understand somethings...
Added on March 19, 2009, 10:37 pm
QUOTE(ThanatosSwiftfire @ Mar 19 2009, 08:28 PM)
For the valuation or cashflow projections of projects involving financing, we need Keg to calculate WACCg, because your goal is to get the NPV of that specific project. Vg on the other hand is a 'broad' formula for the assessment of an entity. Entity =/= project.
You can argue however, that NPV can be derived using V before project and V after the project, however again, that would be far too complicated, so Keg is often the direct way of figuring out the WACCg for the calculation of NPV/APV or Risk-adjusted NPV, whichever you are doing...
If yes then i agreed with u coz from what i learn from mr micheal, the APV is complicated measurement than Risk adjusted NPV...
I heard u have finished studying ACCA from this forum, are u working in finance?
This post has been edited by gecodine: Mar 19 2009, 10:37 PM
Mar 19 2009, 10:32 PM

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