God is no longer angry at you.

Hebrews 10:17 (KJV) - And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.

It's great isn't it? To hear that God does not remember our sins and iniquity anymore? If God does remember your sins, then God would contradict Himself in Hebrews 10:17. Some people argue that Hebrews 10:17 is only for the fulfillment of Israel people, quoting Jeremiah 31. However Hebrews 10 which quotes Jeremiah 31 talks about Christ's Sacrifice which is available to all, not just the israelites. Interestingly the Holy Spirit does not mention the Israelites here. Reason being it is made available to all people who are willing to believe in Christ.

So if you have accepted Christ, learn to rest easy and breath easy.

Hebrews 10 talks about the perfect sacrifice of Christ that does 2 things.

1. Removed our sins forever.
2. Made us Holy forever.

If forever is true then God does not remember our sins anymore and is not angry anymore is true. Because you cannot have the words (underlined) as true if indeed God still remember our sins.

Hebrews 10:10 (NIV) - And by that will, we have been made holy through the sacrifice of the body of Jesus Christ once for all

Hebrews 10:14 (NIV) - For by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are being made holy..

If our Salvation and righteousness is temporal and depends on our obedience then the word "forever" and "once for all" as above cannot be true.

I pray you will receive this revelation by the Holy Spirit.

God Bless.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Aug 3 2017, 10:31 AM

A song for all Malaysians

Hey folks I need some help building an objection about Optimistic Nihilism



I already asked Reddit last week about their thoughts

https://www.reddit.com/r/Christianity/comme...be_should_have/

The talk about it being dishonest is interesting.

The reason I'm asking is for writing reasons. Got to collect as many angles as possible so I can write better for the debate between characters.

Can tolong?

The word phrase is a contradiction in itself. When the root itself is flawed, whatever further explanation is meaningless because the base does not make sense.

For example, nihilism means the rejection of all religious and moral principles, often in the belief that life is meaningless. When the definition of nihilism equates life = meaningless and yet tries to put in the word "Optimistic" is like trying to call a square a circle or trying to define hope = hopelessness.

For me I wouldn't bother to pursue trying to debunk something like that.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Aug 4 2017, 09:30 AM

I don't know how to answer it when the other party insists that meaningless=liberation though

It's also for personal guarding. So I don't get shaken by the implications.

huh? how would u get shaken by it? examples?

I better PM you. Don't want my post to be misattributed elsewhere.

City of David.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Aug 7 2017, 11:57 AM

yeah, seems more like protek.

Hi UW,

First of all, for verse verse 26



Every translation I went to besides NLT translates this as "make intercession/ intercedes for us". The Greek huperentunchano means to rescue somebody in great danger with no resource of his own.

And then to deal with the context of this portion of the text, first we have groanings of creation (v22), groanings of the christian (v23) and the Holy Spirit intercedes for us in this groaning that we ourselves are too fallen to understand. We are utterly helpless in our fallen nature because of sin, that we have no idea how and what to pray for.

I don't want to go too far with this, I went through commentaries by John MacArthur, RC Sproul, John Piper, Charles Spurgeon, and none of them has the opinion that the Spirit puts words in our mouths (aka tongues).

It's interesting you mention groaning of the Christian.

There are 2 parts to this. There are....Help us and intercede for us. Agree?

The word "help us" is "sunantilambanomai" which means "jointly help us".
The word "intercede" is "huperentugchanó" which means "to make petition for", of course the rescuing part ...the resource comes from God, hence "no resources of our own" comes into place.

The petitioning part.....does not discredit the praying in groans. And.....How can the Holy Spirit helps us if we don't jointly pray in the spirit. You do agree that Holy Spirit does not act if we do not pray. So praying is the core matter here. But how? Do we groan or it's just the Holy Spirit who is groaning. What is the point of letting the reader know..if it's just the Holy Spirit groaning in the spirit realm....for me there are no insignificant details in the Bible.

The question I think which is the contention.....

So what is the "through wordless groan"?

Isn't that participation on our part? If it isn't, why use the phrase "through" or "with" ...the verb "groans"? How can it be through us or with us as you can see in most of the word translation used.

Wouldn't it sound weird that you or the spirit prays through groaning?

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Aug 10 2017, 11:57 AM

What must I do to be saved?

Acts 16:30-31 (NIV) -…Then he brought them out and asked, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” They replied, “Believe in the Lord Jesus and you will be saved, you and your household.”

This incident happened where God miraculously delivered Paul & Silas from Prison through an earthquake that caused the foundation of the prison to shake open the cell doors and shackles. The Prison Jailer who saw this wanted to kill himself because he knew he would be killed anyway when questioned by his superior. Before He could kill himself, Paul stopped him and he kneel before paul and silas asking what must he do to be saved?

Interesting the Holy Spirit recorded "believe' as the condition. The word obedience to God is not recorded here. Has Paul forgotten to include it in as the condition of Salvation? Or was Paul being inconsistent to tell one person faith and another person obedience in a different place? If you say that the person will be told later of obedience condition, then I can argue, I don't see that as being recorded. Prove to me that the same person is told or...it's understood, he will read the Bible and understand obedience is also a key. Friend...the Bible has not even been compiled yet during paul's time. You would be creating a doctrine based on assumption.

No, Dear Friends...God's precondition for Salvation is consistent throughout the Bible. It has always been Faith and by his Grace. Do not allowed anyone to add their own assumption to throw you off balance.


God Bless.

Groaning is the result of Sin, result of suffering and decay(v18), curse of God (v20), and creation waits for the Christians to be glorified (v19 & 21) with pains of childbirth.

It is a type of pain too deep for us to understand. Thats why HS intercedes for us.

If groaning means to speak in tongues, you create more questions.

1) What is whole creation groaning? Are we supposed to understand that the trees and flowers speak in tongues too?

2) you created another type of speaking in tongues that has a diffrent purpose than those in Acts and Corithn.

I don't see where in the Bible that says groaning is the result of sin.

you're not really attending to the question I've asked...With us..through us.

not really.

1 Corinthians 14:2 (NIV) - For anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to people but to God. Indeed, no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Aug 11 2017, 11:44 AM

We groan because we are suffering. We suffer because God cursed creation. God cursed because of sin. Thats the whole text.

What translation are you using? The with and through are not in nkjv or esv though.

That verse just means, God knows what's he's babbling about in a negative sense.

If you think speaking in tongues without any people understanding is encouraged, you have to answer Paul's rebuke later in the chapter where Paul said do not speak in tongues if nobody can translate and understand.

All the speaking in tongues Ive witnessed definitely is not translatable. Ive yet to see one.

How can you be suffering because of sin? Unless you're telling me Christ did not liberate you from sin.

This suffering is a different context. It's not about sin. This groaning is our waiting for the blessed hope of our new body. Hence the phrase waiting for liberation from bondage and decay (v21) because our current body is corruptible physical body with the nature of the flesh. Why is there an agitation on our part? It's because we have been (past tense) made a new creation. We are a new clean spirit (no sin) made righteous permanently but living in the old body. The Flesh in our body is not our identity anymore. Hence the suffering.

No, that forbidding is speaking in tongues before mass congregation if there is no interpreter, 1 Corinthians 14:2 refers speaking in tongue before God meaning it's a personal one to one.

Apostle Paul also said he speaks in tongues more than all of you in his personal time with God, which goes to say he does indeed speak a lot of tongues So you're telling me paul speaks in other human language to God? How can that be utterless mystery? It's utterable language.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Aug 14 2017, 11:22 AM

Good to see Bro Unknown warrior is still alive and kicking

Spread the word!