QUOTE(unknown warrior @ Aug 11 2017, 02:33 PM)
How can you be suffering because of sin? Unless you're telling me Christ did not liberate you from sin.
This suffering is a different context. It's not about sin. This groaning is our waiting for the blessed hope of our new body. Hence the phrase waiting for liberation from bondage and decay (v21) because our current body is corruptible physical body with the nature of the flesh. Why is there an agitation on our part? It's because we have been (past tense) made a new creation. We are a new clean spirit (no sin) made righteous permanently but living in the old body. The Flesh in our body is not our identity anymore. Hence the suffering.
No, that forbidding is speaking in tongues before mass congregation if there is no interpreter, 1 Corinthians 14:2 refers speaking in tongue before God meaning it's a personal one to one.
Apostle Paul also said he speaks in tongues more than all of you in his personal time with God, which goes to say he does indeed speak a lot of tongues So you're telling me paul speaks in other human language to God? How can that be utterless mystery? It's utterable language.
The bondage and decay came to human when Adam and Eve sinned, when paradise was lost, when death came. Now we are waiting for the perfect to come, the perfection that Christ promised, when there will be no tears, pain and suffering (Rev 21), hence the groanings. I don't know if you understand what I'm saying or not This suffering is a different context. It's not about sin. This groaning is our waiting for the blessed hope of our new body. Hence the phrase waiting for liberation from bondage and decay (v21) because our current body is corruptible physical body with the nature of the flesh. Why is there an agitation on our part? It's because we have been (past tense) made a new creation. We are a new clean spirit (no sin) made righteous permanently but living in the old body. The Flesh in our body is not our identity anymore. Hence the suffering.
No, that forbidding is speaking in tongues before mass congregation if there is no interpreter, 1 Corinthians 14:2 refers speaking in tongue before God meaning it's a personal one to one.
Apostle Paul also said he speaks in tongues more than all of you in his personal time with God, which goes to say he does indeed speak a lot of tongues So you're telling me paul speaks in other human language to God? How can that be utterless mystery? It's utterable language.
Whole chapter 14 is a rebuke to the Corithians for selfishly coveting the the gift of speaking in tongues.
Paul is telling them, desire prophecy over tongues (v1), because if you speak in a tongue, nobody understands you (v2), but if you prophecy, you edify other people (v3). If you speak in a tongue, you puff yourself up, but if you prophecy, you edify the church (v4), I wish you all spoke in tongues, but prophesying is superior, unless tongues is interpreted (v5).
The whole context here is about the gift of tongues for the edification of the church.
To say that in v2 is talking about another type of tongue praying that you can use to speak to God just defeats the purpose of the gifts, which is for the benefit of others, out of context, and just redundant when we can speak perfectly well in "normal" human language with God.
We are going in circles with this, so this will be my last post about tongues.
Have a good day.
Aug 16 2017, 08:07 AM

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