QUOTE(Yggdrasil @ Feb 27 2020, 11:51 PM)
That person used website to calculate.
CAGR formula = (Investment value/Total deposit)^(1/no. of years)
IRR is harder to calculate because you need the timing of cash flows to be accurate.
Generally, IRR is the discount rate which gives an NPV of 0.
If there was a single lump sum investment two years ago the CAGR and the IRR should be the same.
Since it is different there must have been multiple inflows and outflows of cashflow.
Hence it would not be possible to calculate CAGR and you would need to calculate the money-weighted return which is equivalent to the IRR.
So what I am trying to figure out as the IRR and CAGR is not the same, how did he manage to calculate CAGR or if there was only 1 lump sum
investment why is CAGR and IRR not the same
If you also look at the Sharpe ratio
which is Sharpe Ratio = (Return - Risk Free Rate) / Standard Deviation
I would assume he is using the IRR to calculate the Sharpe Ratio as the number would roughly be correct if he used IRR and not CAGR. So I am wondering
where the CAGR came from.
The numbers from the Sharpe ratio are also inconsistent. I calculated for
a. portfolio 1 the Risk Free Rate = 2.1801
b. portfolio 2 the Risk Free Rate = 1.7716
The only way the two portfolios can have a different risk free rate is if the time periods are different in which case you can't compare both the portfolioos.
If the numbers don't tally I don't think it is possible to give a reasonable opinion till it is confirmed whether to use CAGR or IRR and
to confirm what is the standardized risk free rate base on the same time period to calcualte the relavant Sharpe and Sortino ratios..
For example if I used a risk free rate of 2%. Portfolio 1 would have a higher sharpe ratio (1.13) then portfolio 2 (1.09) but in the above example
portfolio 2 (1.12) has a higher sharpe ratio then portfolio 1 (1.11).
Not sure whether my understanding of the concepts or calculations are correct so please correct me if I am wrong.