Hi dario, my case is like this:-
I'm selling my house to one buyer. We both using own lawyer. However, it has to go through MOT1(trustee to vendor) and MOT2(vendor to purchaser). My lawyer told me both MOT can adjudicate and stamp together. Today, i went for signing S&P(signed by purchaser). While signing i only checked on the purchase price and ic(normal standard checking). My lawyer was holding the 8% of earnest deposit. At the same time i wonder why im not given the balance of 8% of the earnest deposit. (I thought will be given after the S&P was stamped by the purchaser's solicitor)
As i reach home, i go thorugh my S&P(photostat copy) again, i found that
MOT1 will be stamped and adjudicated by vendor solicitor and
MOT2 will be stamped and adjudicated by purchaser solicitor once MOT1 stamped and adjudicated
Q1the lawyer told me will be stamped and adjudicated MOT1 and MOT2 together..why now different?
2.1.2
a sum of $$$$$$$$ paid by the purchaser to vendor's solicitor, as stakeholders, upon the execution of this agreement (hereinafter referred to as "the Balance of Deposit"), the receipt of which the vendor's solicitor hereby acknowledges with instruction to release the same to the Vendor upon the Purchaser's solicitor receipt of the duly executed, adjudicated and stamped MOT1.
Q2the statement above refer to, i will be having my 8% upon MOT1(stamped and adjudicated) received by purchaser's solicitor, am i right?
Q3by right, this 8% shud be given to my upon S&P signing. Is my lawyer protecting me?
and
the remaining if the balance of 90% of the purchase price will be paid to the vendor solicitor, as stakeholders, within THREE MONTHS from the date the Purchaser's solicitor recipt of a copy of the Memorandum of Transfer duly executed by the trustee in favour of the Vendor (MOT1) adjudicated and stamped (hereinafter to as completion period). The actual date the balance purchase is paid to the vendor solicitor within the completion period is hereinafter referred to as "the completion date"
Q4Why is the three month start counting on the date of MOT1 adjudicated? Normally is count from the date S&P stamped. My lawyer wan to makan my fixed deposit?
this is killing me. pls advise
1. The clause in the SPA is the correct procedure.
2. Yes. The 8% can only be released to you once MOT1 has been received by the purc's solicitors.
3. Usually it should be given to you upon signing of the SPA. It is a matter of negotiation of the terms by both parties. Your lawyer could've insisted for it to be released to you upon signing of the SPA with the usual undertaking to refund in the event MOT1 cannot be adjudicated or stamped for any reason whatsoever. Purc's lawyer would definitely have insisted on the way it is stated now, as it protects the purc who can easily get his refund in the event the SPA is aborted.
Your lawyer ought to put it in a FD one a month to month basis. You can insist on that if they omit to do so. All proceeds go to you, by the way.
4. That is quite usual. The provisions in relation to MOT1 is a condition precedent which must be settled in order for the ball to start rolling. It is only fair that time starts to run from then.