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 Lawyer's Corner v2, One-stop centre for any legal queries

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TSdariofoo
post Nov 22 2012, 04:42 PM

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QUOTE(Sandy2028 @ Nov 22 2012, 03:27 PM)
How to apply the title if there is a house on the land which is belongs to the land owner who hold 1/2 the shares of the land n house too?(This is difference case)
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You need to go to the land office first and do a search on the area. Take out the plan and see if there is a title on that piece of land first. In Malaysia, the registered proprietor/owner is king and even if you and your ancestors have stayed there since the Ice Age, the proprietor has the right over the property over you. Most likely there would be a title issued already.


TSdariofoo
post Nov 23 2012, 11:26 AM

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QUOTE(Louiz @ Nov 22 2012, 05:15 PM)
thank you so much for providing me such knowlegde
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Cheers. Don't forget to insist on the 8% to be placed in a FD (would be under the firm's Client's Account) and the proceeds given to you simultaneously upon receipt of the 8%.
TSdariofoo
post Nov 23 2012, 11:47 AM

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QUOTE(Sandy2028 @ Nov 22 2012, 06:04 PM)
Do u mean the land's title? Of course there is a title for the landowner,however the kampung house erected there, do not has its individual title (grant of the house) but the assessment registered under the house owner i.e the house belongs to us. Those kampung houses are sited on the pc of land belongs to the landowner themself with their consent.  In the land office records, I won't know whether there is a plan for those houses.  All I know, the new land owner (developer) bought over from the existing landowner who will not compensate us but the new landowner.
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doh.gif doh.gif doh.gif

Earlier you asked me 'how to take out title', now you say got title. Then you said different case, but sounds like it's the same case. rclxub.gif rclxub.gif

Assessment registered under house owner does not mean anything. In fact, why do you even pay assessment when the land does not even belong to you? Free money for the local authorities. Having assessment does not help you to establish ownership of the land. Remember that house and land is different. You may build a house but the land which you have built it upon does not belong to you. You also can't say that the house belongs to you. Whatever sits on the land belongs to the registered proprietor of the land.


QUOTE(Sandy2028 @ Nov 22 2012, 06:04 PM)
Can u conclude that all these kampung houses are squatter houses eventhough with the consent of the landowner who collect a rental fees for occupy at their land?No agreement is made but by mutual consent. sweat.gif
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If you pay rental and build the house, then you are an 'occupier with consent/acquiscience'.

If you do not pay anything and merely built the house on an empty land, then you are a mere squatter.

An occupier with consent/acquiscience who tries to assert ownership of the land, would still be treated as a mere squatter.

You only paid rental, not a purchase price. So once the property has been sold, then of course it is up to the new owner whether to allow you to continue to occupy the land or otherwise.

With regard to compensation, if the previous landowner had given assurances/consent in writing for you to develop the land, build structures, etc, then you can claim compensation from him for the losses suffered, if the owner merely sold it to a third party and does not want to compensate you for it. What you cannot claim for is to remain on the land. The new owner has exclusive rights over it.
TSdariofoo
post Nov 23 2012, 11:51 AM

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QUOTE(zest168 @ Nov 23 2012, 10:27 AM)
Hi Dario,

I am Chinese and sought a malay friend to purchase a condo in his name but I will pay for it. My questions:

1. Can I make a joint name purchase?

2. If I cannot make a joint name purchase, can I be a guarantor for his loan?

3. What other legal instrument shall I execute to ensure my interest in the property is preserved such as Power of Attorney, etc that will work?

Thank you.
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Is it a bumi lot which you're referring to here?

TSdariofoo
post Nov 23 2012, 01:29 PM

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QUOTE(Sandy2028 @ Nov 23 2012, 12:46 PM)
Tq for the advice/consultation given. rclxm9.gif  Cause we are quite "blur"-in the nutshell as we are orang kampung. In the 1st place, old folk is the one who paid the assessment which they "claimed" local municipality insisted to collect some fees from them eventhough no services provided but have some Tar Road(Main) to access to their kampung houses and it is a ownership certification of the house (don't know who told them long ago).

Yes, difference case cause this time we r moving into our 1/2 share land (with 1/2 share title deed)that have a broken house(assessment paid (not the landowner's name)too but from previous" house"owner who move out long ago).Moreover, we move over without the consent of the other 1/2share landowner(sister) who is not aware of it.  It is a very complicated case. Need yr kind advice before the other party-sister take any action on us.  We are willing to pay the present rental (monthly) of the house which is rented out around RM180/-  per month.  The rental agreement is signed by my old folk(shareholder of the land) not the other shareholder.  Once we move in they will be no more written agreement for the rental cause the other party will not consent. icon_question.gif
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I can only advise you this far. I would suggest you go appoint a lawyer to advise you further as it does sound complicated.
TSdariofoo
post Nov 27 2012, 12:50 PM

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QUOTE(zest168 @ Nov 23 2012, 01:51 PM)
Hi Dario,

Not a Bumi lot just a normal lot but still enjoy 7% discount for Bumi.


Added on November 23, 2012, 1:53 pmAnother question Dario, for merely change of name in SNP i.e., from this friend to me, will I incur any RPGT?
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Once you get the bumi discount the developer would in most, but not all, cases designate it as a bumi lot. You need to check with the developer.

For change of name, it is not just in the SPA. It must be in the title or if there is no title, then a deed of assignment (DOA) must be prepared. If with title, you need to see if the bank consent s to a transfer subject to charge. If without, then refinancing would have to be done as currently, all rights have been assigned to the bank.

You would need to pay full stamp duty upon the transfer as well, so do take that into account.


Added on November 27, 2012, 12:53 pm
QUOTE(Louiz @ Nov 23 2012, 03:07 PM)
oh yea, there one thing i would like to ask.

Q1 May I know the process of MOT in detail?

Q2 What does it mean adjudicated and stamped MOT? Once the new title given only so-called adjudicated and stamped?
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Q1: MOT i a memorandum of transfer whereby the vendor transfers all his rights over the property to you. It is officially the Form 14A in the National Land Code.

Q2: A MOT which has been signed by both parties do not have any legal effect, until it is sent for valuation (adjudication by LHDN). LHDN then issues a notice stating the stamp duty payable. Once duty has been paid, the MOT is stamped with the amount. Once stamped, it can be presented for registration, thus making the transfer official. A new title will be issued, stating the purchaser's particulars as the owner of the property.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Nov 27 2012, 12:53 PM
TSdariofoo
post Nov 27 2012, 12:54 PM

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QUOTE(bryan_x00 @ Nov 23 2012, 11:01 PM)
Hi may i know what this mean?

(1) Co-proprietors may vote by means of a jointly appointed proxy.

(2) In the absence of a proxy, co-proprietors shall not be entitled to a vote on a show of hands except where a unanimous resolution is required:

Proxy means appoint either one party or third party?
*
Proxy would refer to a third party.
TSdariofoo
post Nov 27 2012, 12:56 PM

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QUOTE(sangaran @ Nov 24 2012, 03:40 PM)
sorry to ask this question if it's a stupid question ...
coz this my first time in this ..
months ago my lawyer submitted the 2% to the LHDN for the CKHT stuff
and today i received a letter from LHDN titled 'pemberitahuan pengiraan dan notis taksiran ckht'
i saw the amount of 'Cukai Kena Dibayar dalam masa 30 hari' in the letter

do i need to pay that amount in the letter?
or the amount in the letter is supposed to be for the 2% thing?

thank you..
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That amount is the amount payable, but the particulars of the 2% would have been stated there as well, and a contra be done if the 2% is higher than the tax (which is usually the case). So, there should be another column for that amount. Unless your 2% is less than the amount which you have to pay? If so, then the amount is the top-up amount which you have to pay now. Check properly.
TSdariofoo
post Nov 27 2012, 12:56 PM

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QUOTE(idoblu @ Nov 25 2012, 08:01 AM)
Hi Dario got a question. Which side lawyer is responsible for obtaining state consent? Buyer's or seller's lawyer? Thanks in advance sir! smile.gif
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Seller's lawyer.

TSdariofoo
post Nov 27 2012, 12:59 PM

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QUOTE(theboringguy @ Nov 25 2012, 10:20 PM)
Hi Dario, would like to ask a few questions.

I am going to take a house loan of RM420K. I believe the following calculation is correct.
1) S&P legal fee: 3390
2) S&P Stamp Duty: 7400
3) Loan Stamp Duty: 2100

What I want to ask is, besides the above,
1) is there any other fees that I need to give? For example Loan legal fee (if there is such thing)?
2) lawyer fees?
3) the S&P stamp duty, S&P legal fee, and Loan stamp duty is fixed?
4) for first time home buyers is there a 50% discount on S&P?

FYI the house is subsale.
Thank you!
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1) Yes, there is a separate legal fee payable for the loan documentation. Follows the same scale.
2) Lawyer's fees = legal fees. Don't forget to add disbursements (expenses)
3) Yes.
4) If the property is RM350k and below, there is a 50% discount on the stamp duty upon the MOT and principal loan doc. See here:
http://forum.lowyat.net/index.php?showtopic=1748580&hl=

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Nov 27 2012, 12:59 PM
TSdariofoo
post Nov 27 2012, 03:31 PM

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QUOTE(theboringguy @ Nov 27 2012, 02:30 PM)
Thank you for your reply. If the quotation i get is RM15K for all the total, is this pricing OK? Thanks again in advance.
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Check your invoice with the many samples in v1 of this thread. Link is at the first page.
TSdariofoo
post Nov 27 2012, 03:36 PM

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QUOTE(Awakened_Angel @ Nov 27 2012, 02:31 PM)
Dear Dario,

want to see your professional advice. One of my neighbour claim that my house`s concrete fence has cross its border of half a feet. The concrete fence was constructed by developer and not by me.

I called up the developer and he say, I have sold the house, this is not my business. From my point if view, if the house leak,crack, yes, it is not your business. But the house has crossed border, and they didnt do the surveying correctly. How can he just wash his hand clean like that?

What say you?

Thank you
*
Much ado about half a feet? doh.gif

Nothing much you can do but to hope that the neighbour sues the developer and leave you out of it.

However, that would not be the proper way to go about it.

The proper way would be to sue you for encroachment/trespass to land, and you would then have to bring in the developer as a third party, whereby you seek indemnity and reimbursement of whatever sums you pay as compensation to your neighbour, since you are alleging that it was the developer who constructed the fence, and not you. If the developer wants, he can bring in the surveyor as a fourth party, and claim indemnity from the surveyor. But that is not your problem.

To protect yourself now itself, you can write a letter to the developer stating that you have been verbally informed by your neighbour of such and such (state the facts), and ask for an explanation from the developer in writing. Get it acknowledged by sending it by hand. Then keep it for your record purposes to show that you acted in good faith from the get go. It would also strengthen your claim vs the developer and paint them in bad light, if they do not respond or give a irresponsible reply like they did.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Nov 27 2012, 03:36 PM
TSdariofoo
post Nov 27 2012, 04:18 PM

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QUOTE(nookie188 @ Nov 27 2012, 03:56 PM)
dario boss

this is the scenario..

tenancy agreement for a shoplot is ongoing..landlord decides to sell the property...
can he do so without any problem?

what about the continuation of tenancy if the buyer requests for VP?
the tenancy agreement is silent on this matter..
thanks
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How can the agreement be silent upon the occurrence of such an important event? doh.gif

It has to be sold with the existing tenancy to continue until the end of its term. The landlord cannot terminate the tenancy upon a sale. He has to honour it til the end of the term, unless the tenant voluntarily agrees to terminate it and move out.
TSdariofoo
post Nov 28 2012, 10:44 AM

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QUOTE(nookie188 @ Nov 27 2012, 04:35 PM)
what can i say - lawyers also come in all shapes and sizes if you know what i mean..
*
sweat.gif
TSdariofoo
post Nov 28 2012, 11:23 AM

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QUOTE(petlu28 @ Nov 28 2012, 10:13 AM)
Dear Dario,

I need your advise regarding my apartment Strata Title. My management & bank officer told me since i wanna sell out my apartment they advise me no need executed strata title from Land Office. Then now i already told management office inform lawyer cancel processing. Bank officer told me IF i have executed strata title next time new buyer also need to do. So better i don't executed it let new buyer do it.

My question is IF i didn't executed strata title is it will make new buyer more troublesome to get loan & processing procedure?

Thanks
*
If developer willing to do direct transfer to purchaser then it is ok, you can skip the process.

However, if I'm not mistaken, the developer would give a one year period for you to finalise the MOT to transfer the strata title to your name (in a normal scenario). After that, a penalty is payable. You can check the notice which the developer gave to you when informing that the strata title is out.

So, if you plan to sell soon, then you can check if they are willing to do a direct transfer within the 1 year period.

It will not affect the purchaser's loan application. As long as the developer consents to do a direct transfer, there should not be a problem.
TSdariofoo
post Nov 29 2012, 02:55 PM

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QUOTE(petlu28 @ Nov 28 2012, 11:32 AM)
Ok. Thanks your expensive[SIZE=7] information given. I will ask developer then anything will get back to you.
*
sweat.gif moneyflies.gif doh.gif
TSdariofoo
post Nov 29 2012, 02:57 PM

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QUOTE(eddie chang @ Nov 28 2012, 01:12 PM)
Dear Dario,

We (my wife and I) plan to get a new condo value at abt rm662k in Shah Alam, freehold. However my wife is a foreigner. We want to have a joint name S&P, however, the sales guy from the developer told us can't. I hv asked my lawyer, she said can if :
1) Prop abv rm500k
2) not landed and no title, no need to get approval from FIC and Land Office
3) Need developer consent letter
4) As wife from China, need to get approval from Bt Aman ( is this true?)

Whose adv is correct? i am lost. And will there be additional charges for a joint name legal fee or misc. charges?

Appreciate your adv.

Tks bro.
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Lawyer is right for no.1 and 2. No.3 I'm not sure. No.4 - never of it before. sweat.gif
TSdariofoo
post Nov 29 2012, 02:57 PM

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QUOTE(laptopdoctortom @ Nov 28 2012, 05:05 PM)
hi dario
like to ask your advice on this , thanks for your time

i was at my lawyer to sign the loan agreement for a office unit,
the clerk informed me that the seller not settled the oustanding
arrears with developer - amount of 9k+
and seller ask me to pay half to get the deal thru
but this is seller responsibility ?
according to s/p onus is on seller to get letter of consent from developer

is the seller too greedy in this case , like extortion

best regards
henry
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Normally it would have to be paid by the vendor. This should be reflected in your SPA. What does your SPA say?

TSdariofoo
post Nov 29 2012, 02:58 PM

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QUOTE(richiekueh @ Nov 28 2012, 06:53 PM)
Thank you so much dario:)

1 more question, is that all loan agreement fees are standard calculation? can i know how to calculate it?
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Standard. Calculator at first page. Scale is same as for SPA.
TSdariofoo
post Nov 29 2012, 03:02 PM

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QUOTE(brianccg @ Nov 29 2012, 10:36 AM)
Bro,

How we know if the seller's lawyer had applied the consent from land office? Do they have to provide a copy of such letter to the buyer's lawyer as proof? 

Thanks
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Depends on what is stated in the SPA - whether the seller's lawyer has to show proof of submission of application to the purc's lawyer. If none, then it is more of a matter of courtesy.

Purc's lawyer can write in and request for a copy of the cover letter and application for consent.

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