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 Lawyer's Corner v2, One-stop centre for any legal queries

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TSdariofoo
post Sep 7 2012, 03:59 PM

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QUOTE(scongi @ Sep 6 2012, 08:44 PM)
Tks dariofoo for your reply.

I just need more clarification on your answer.

For answer to 1) above, does the developer can terminate and forfeited the deposit if the loan is not released

1) within 28 days after the due date or
2) after the expiration of 14 days notice (which mean within 42 days after due date)

*
That would depend on what is stated in your SPA. I would not know as I do not have a copy of it.

QUOTE(scongi @ Sep 6 2012, 08:44 PM)
For answer to 4), should I ask the developer to give me the letter mention the 10% will be refunded within 30 days once the bank release the fund?
Thanks again for your time.
*
I should've clarified that the amount calculated is 10% per annum on that outstanding installment, not 10% lump sum of the balance sum owing.

Anyway, that sum is late payment interest. Are you referring to that? hmm.gif
TSdariofoo
post Sep 7 2012, 04:01 PM

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QUOTE(ddeee @ Sep 7 2012, 12:24 PM)
Hi Dario, i've paid 3% and sign the letter of offer but i decided to back out because all the while i was thinking the way it works is like 3% of earnest deposit first and 7% balance to pay on the snp signing day.

After that, its 90 days to preparing the 90% balance am I right? But the agent keep including another 10% from the loan amount and this made me feel so uncomfortable to proceed. Its like 10% plus 10% upfront already.

Is this normal? So i cancelled the deal and they forfeited the 3% and theres nothing much i can do about it right?
But i havent sign anything to cancel it.
*
What do you mean "the agent keep including another 10% from the loan amount " ? Keep including in where?

Once you sign the letter of offer and it says 3% plus 7% during signing of SPA and another 90% after 3 months, the agent or the seller CANNOT change the terms unilaterally without your permission.

Why did you cancel? Why didn't you refer to a lawyer who can advise you accordingly, instead of letting the 3% burn just like that.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 10 2012, 01:21 PM

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QUOTE(ddeee @ Sep 7 2012, 04:42 PM)
Yeah the agent insisted us to pay the remaining 7% PLUS 10% from the loan amount upon signing the sap. Thats y i felt something is not right and i decided to cancel it. So now, im not going to proceed anyhow despite the agent agreed to take off the additional 10% from loan amount. Funny right? So Dario, is it impossible to get back the deposit anymore?
*
As I had stated earlier, the agent nor the vendor cannot insist on that PLUS 10% to be paid, unless it is stated in the letter of offer. So, you have to answer whether it is stated there or otherwise. If not, it cannot be insisted or requested by the agent or the vendor. Furthermore, why is the agent getting involved in the terms of the SPA?

You can still proceed with the SPA but when it comes to the drafting of the SPA, it will follow what has been agreed upon by the parties in the letter of offer. So, if the PLUS 10% clause is not there, the vendor cannot insist on it.

I can't see any way for you to cancel it. Fall back on the original terms of the letter of offer and move on.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 10 2012, 01:25 PM

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QUOTE(shing1987 @ Sep 7 2012, 06:25 PM)
Hi Dario, i've come along to purchase a house 1 and a half yr back which is under a master title.

I've using the same lawyer with the owner coz i thought that it will speed up the circulations. I've applied loan with Citibank, everythings is fine, loan agreements signed and even the S&P i've already signed too. Eearnest money, S&P lawyer fees, stamp duty all paid.

Until the time when i wait for the bank for disbursement, something stuck there. The bank hold it because the developer has gone bankrupt and the quit rent is not clear yet.
I've even tried to bring my case to apply for other banks loan, none can go through. So, at last i gave up.

My question,
1) At first, I did not ask for lawyer fees refund because i've seen my lawyer helping me to call the liquidator deal with them and so on.
But after done some research from the internet, i found out that the quit rent receipt suppose to check by the lawyer in the very very 1st stage.

In fact I did not ask them to refund because i'm afraid i'll displease him.
But actually should they refund me the lawyer fees? Perhaps partially?

2) After some times, i remember that i've also paid for the stamp duty so i called up my lawyer to ask them on helping me to get the refund because i have no idea how to do that. So today, i've get the answer through phone that the lawyer told me that the LHDN said the stamp duty is not refundable because it already passed more than 1 yr and will mail me the letter reply by LHDN.

I've got very frustrated in this case, isn't that my lawyer should help me to get the refund when the S&P is aborted and not until i called them up to remind them? In this case, should the lawyer bare the responsible?

Please kindly advise.
Thank you.
*
1. If transaction is aborted, it is customary for half of legal fees to be reimbursed, plus unused disbursements. You would need to demand for it, as some unscrupulous lawyers will just keep quiet about it.

2. Has stamp duty been paid? Is he sure or pulling a fast one over you? If the vendor's property is encumbered, the first release will be for redemption and that stage, stamp duty would not have been paid yet. Stamp duty is normally paid at the tail end of the transaction. Ask for proof of payment - eg the Sijil Setem.

I cannot say if the lawyer ought to be responsible as you would need to study the chronology of the case from the start til the end to see if they have been negligent in any way throughout the transaction.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 10 2012, 01:27 PM

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QUOTE(king_eric @ Sep 8 2012, 04:57 PM)
Hi all, curious question. Say that SPA is signed, is there a restriction where the related property cannot be used for viewing purpose by agent anymore ?
*
There would not be such a clause in the SPA, but the vendor would normally request for the keys to the property to be returned to him after the SPA has been signed. What the actual concern here, really?
TSdariofoo
post Sep 10 2012, 01:31 PM

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QUOTE(Wilson1981 @ Sep 9 2012, 05:53 PM)
Dear legal expert,

I had brought a single storey house through LACA auction from bank on 17 July 2012 which cost about RM80k. I had paid 10% deposit.

My legal firm's clerk just told me the individual title had been issued and already registered under previous owner name. The firm 's clerk said she never meet this kind of case before because this case should under high court auction. sweat.gif

My Question is:
Q1, how can i transfer the house under my name? because i heard maybe the bank will withdraw the deal.
Q2, are there any risk if i  proceed to pay balance purchase price? i intend pay by cash.

Thanks for help..

wilson
*
Perhaps the property was under assignment at first when the vendor took the loan, and only later, title was issued. The PA would still be in force, so the bank can execute the transfer on behalf of the vendor, as the bank is the assignee whom the vendor has vested his authority in.

Since you are buying by way of cash, I see no complications.

Why bother talking to the clerk ? Demand to speak to a lawyer at once and ask him as to how he intends to resolve this matter. You're not paying professional fees charged by a lawyer to be entertained by a clerk.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 10 2012, 01:35 PM

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QUOTE(madcow1 @ Sep 9 2012, 10:11 PM)
Hope anyone can share whether this process seem right now ?

I have brought a sub-sale condo in March this year, first time purchase, done everything, signed s&p and got the loan with bank in the past few months.

My bank has disbursed the amount to the previous owner bank for full settlement for the owner loan in early Aug, so when I check with my lawyer which is same lawyer with the owner, they informed has sent the cheque to bank and waiting for the Deed of Receipt and Reassignment and all original documents from the Bank.

But when I check again end of Aug expecting to get my key to the house, the lawyer informed they still have not receive the documents from the bank.

Just wonder if this is correct ? Am I suppose to just sit here and wait for the lawyer ? How long is the normal process and anything I should be doing?
Thank for anyone that can share with me their knowledge on my questions.
*
Yes probably the bank is taking time to locate the file with the original documents. You must understand that the last month had many holidays and basically almost 2 weeks were taken out of the equation as many institutions were closed (or even if open, a lot of staff were on leave).

The vendor would normally be given 10-14 working days to obtain the duly executed Deed of RnR and original docs from his financier (check your SPA for the exact duration) In the event of a delay, the completion date would be extended in your favour.

I don't see anything which you can do, but to follow up with your lawyer to follow up with the vendor's financier.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 10 2012, 01:50 PM

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QUOTE(hwazai @ Sep 10 2012, 07:54 AM)
Hi sifu,

exp:

Mr. A has a land, but he never make a will. Mr. A pass away for 1 week already, sijil kematian just issued from JPN.

Question:

What is the fastest way his sons can get the land?

Thanks
*
Are there any other matters in the estate of the deceased? EPF, monies in bank accounts? If so, then it would be prudent to appoint a lawyer, draw up a Deed of Family Arrangement and get a Letter of Administration in respect of all the inheritence in the estate. Once the LA is issued, the administrator can execute the necessary transfer forms to transfer the land to the rightful beneficiaries as agreed upon in the Deed of Family Arrangement and LA.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 11 2012, 11:37 AM

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QUOTE(Emily Elizabeth @ Sep 11 2012, 09:00 AM)
Hi, I handed over rented apartment keys to landlord's friend on 13/8/12 because the landlord wasn't free and the landlord promised that she would return 3/4 of my deposit by 17/8/12 (she would keep 1/4deposit to cover the utility bills). But when I called her on 20/8/12, she said she was abroad and hang up her phone.
Then 2 weeks later on 3/9/12, I called that landlord again and she said she never said that she would return my 3/4 deposit by 17/8, and she found out there were a few problems in the property and we need to pay to repair. then when I defend, she said the phone line was not good and hang up her phone and till now, I haven't heard anything from her.
I don't think I should pay for the repairs as the landlord or her friend didn't inform me about the problem untill 3 weeks later and I don't know what they did to the property. The landlord bought the property from the seller(my previous landlord) and she didn't do a proper check before signing the S&P, now she found out the problems and wanted me to cover her cost which I don't think its fair.

The question is what I should do next, should I file a police report against my previous landlord(I had a rental agreement with him), or against the current landlord whom I don't have an agreement with.
*
Firstly, there's no point in lodging a police report as this is not a criminal case. The closest you can get to is cheating under Sec 420, Penal Code but it is unclear at the moment if the landlord has the intention of cheating you in the legal sense of the term.

What you can do is either draft a letter of demand yourself or appoint a lawyer to do so. In the letter of demand it can be stated that in the event that the deposit are not refunded within xx days, you would institute legal proceedings and also lodge a police report (as at this stage, you can infer that the landlord has the intention to cheat, as there is no excuse for her to hold the deposit after getting the LOD).

Your claim would be against the new landlord/owner, and not the previous one. The tenancy agreement can still be used as there ought to be a clause there which talks about assignment and continuity to a heirs-in-title, assignees,etc. So, the agreement continues to bind the new owner, who steps into the shoes of the previous owner.

With regard to the landlord's complaints about the condition of the property, it is clearly an afterthought as no efforts were taken to inspect the property before/during handover of keys. Now that weeks have passed, it would be too late for her to establish credibility in her claim. It is essentially her words against yours, so the fact that she delayed before communicating it to you shows that it is an afterthought on her part.

Put everything down in writing by way of a LOD. And do it fast without further delay before she puts something in writing first.

TSdariofoo
post Sep 11 2012, 12:08 PM

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QUOTE(brianccg @ Sep 11 2012, 11:53 AM)
Brother Dario,

The deadline to sign the SPA is due on 21 Sept as per booking form.  However, the landlord requested me to sign the SPA this week which I am not comfortable with as banker just called to informed bank loan approved and I have not really start looking for lawyer to prepare SPA.

Can I not agree to sign SPA this week and should I receive the LO Offer from bank before signing SPA?

Thanks
*
You have the right to insist on it to be executed on 21 Sept.

Technically a LO cannot stand without the SPA, but you can sign the LO first and get things up and running.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Sep 11 2012, 12:08 PM
TSdariofoo
post Sep 11 2012, 10:15 PM

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QUOTE(DrTay @ Sep 9 2012, 12:48 AM)
Dear Legal Experts and Proerty Experts,

I have a major dilemma here that I hope you can help me. I bought a high end condominium in Feb 2011, and moved in Dec 2011. A week after that, my bathroom was flooded with sewage water that flown out from the shower drain in my bathroom. I am staying on the first floor. Because it was weekends, the developer didn't send in their plumbers to rectify it immediately. I had to than a few days of this shit and urine in my bathroom for 2days before they came in and cleared the waste. And upon investigation, they blamed it on the contractors above my units who might have thrown rubbish into the drain and caused the blockage. During that time when the plumber was checking the piping in my house, he kept mumbling that the developer used cheap labour and cheap materials that's why so any problems. I couldn't sleep well the few nights, i stayed in the unit regardless, cos i feared that the Waste would flow out of the bathroom and damag my bedroom.

I thought after they cleared the rubbish that had clogged the drain, everything will be fine. But after a few days, it happened again! Same shit problem! I wrote to the director of the developer, she replied it is normal fr the first floor unit to kena this problem. After they cleared the debris and changed the pipes, they said they won't promise it won't happen again.

I got phobia after that incidents. I did not dare to use the bathroom, cos I feel that it's so unhygienic and unhealthy to use a bathroom that was flooded with human waste. I did not even dare to sleep in the master bedroom because every time I hear water noise, I will freak out and worried that same shit problem happen again. So, I moved to a second bedroom and leave the master bedroom unused. Imagine how sad I was paying 790k, but I didn't use the master bedroom or the bathtub that I have been longing to use.

A few nights ago, which means 9months after, same shit happened again. But this time is worst. I came home and even before I reached my door, I smelled urine and shit, and I could see sewage water flowing out non stop from my house!

It flooded my house! It contaminated my whole house including the bed, wardrobe, electrical items, kitchen, timber floorings, and etc.

I called the person in charge on his cell, he said its 10:30pm, he can't do much, the plumber won't come, he asked me to wait until next day, but he couldn't promise what time of the day.

Damn it, my neighbors came and helped me, we alerted the security guards, and they informed the management. The maintenance team from the management team came and took a few hours, before they managed to help me to unclog the pipe below. Me and my neighbors had to sweep out the human waste out if my unit.

I called the bloody developer rep the next morning, she said nobody informed her of anything. I sent an email to them and the director two hours before I called. She said we can't check the mail because the secretary only has the access to the email, and that the director is not in the office.

After I scolded them, she finally sent the plumber in and took a look, but he didn't give me an definite answer or solution. The developer didn't reply me either since then. Not even regarding the denying fees that I had to fork out.

I am devastated. None of my friends can help me in the legal advice. The lawyer friends said they are not expert in this.

Please help me guys.

Not to mention, it's has been 3weeks that they ignored my complain about the water leaking in my second bedroom wall, even after I threatened to bring this issue to public. I wrote almost 10emails but none was replied.
Please help me.
*
It's really not that complicated. All you need to to do at this stage is to appoint a lawyer who would send in a letter of demand to the developer, demanding that the defects be rectified with 48 hrs failing which you would institute legal proceedings against the developer. Now, if you believe that the unit is no longer fit for occupation, you can even seek a declaration to annul the SPA between you and the developer on the ground of a material breach that goes to the root of the contract, i.e. that the developer failed to deliver a unit to you that is fit for human occupation. Of course, if your property is encumbered, you would need the consent of your financier. Basically, you sue for refund of all monies paid, reimbursement of legal fees, bank interest, maintenance, etc.

If you have enough evidence by way of photographs, correspondence with the developer and if you can come up with a proper chronology of events, I believe that you would have a very good case. Only a mad judge would not sympathise with your predicament. I have not come across any case of this sort before, but I believe that yours can be the first. Even if the developer fixes your problem, the trauma and suffering which you have gone through would be hard to forget, more so since you're staying in that very unit.

Go seek advice from a lawyer and start building your case. Even if you do not want to seek a declaration you can still seek damages - even aggravated damages, due to the conduct of the developer.

Good luck.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 11 2012, 10:17 PM

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QUOTE(nookie188 @ Sep 11 2012, 05:55 PM)
I have an existing tenancy that says that the tenure of rental is 1+1 years -  now that the tenancy is going to expire in 2 months, the agent is calling to say that
the tenant would like to continue renting into the 2nd year..

However, the agent is demanding that I pay him another 1/2 mth rental for the 2nd year  but I did not indicate verbally nor in writing my agreement to this fee at any time.  I understand that usually the one month agency fee is for a tenancy agreement of 1 to 2 years which has been paid prior to the commencement of the tenancy.

Please advise what are my rights in this situation.

thanks
*
I believe the agent is trying to pull a fast one over you. If there is nothing in writing, then there's no obligation to pay. Deal directly with the tenant. Easier.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 13 2012, 02:01 PM

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QUOTE(Newcastle @ Sep 12 2012, 05:12 PM)
Dear Dariofoo,

1) Why does the UK judges wearing the white faked hair on his head during the trial? What does it mean? Any website I can go for me to search and read.

2) If my friend want to borrow from me RM100k, can I appoint a lawyer to draft me an agreement as evidence I lend him RM100k? What is the name of the agreement? In the agreement can I write a clause stating that failing to pay the installment I will take away his property and sell it.
*
1. It's called a wig and I can only assume that it is to show some form of seniority/maturity as in the olden days to have grey/white hair is a sign of wisdom. smile.gif A bit irrelevant now in our local context as judges no longer wear wigs in our Courts. I believe it was abolished in the 1980s as it was deemed to be a vestige of our colonial masters.

2. Friendly Loan Agreement or just Loan Agreement would do. You can't insert that clause unless you come in as a chargee over his property and also get him to sign a PA in your nominee's favour. Another option would be to get him to sign a blank MOT - transfer form - but that is plain unethical and is practised by moneylenders and their ilk.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 13 2012, 04:46 PM

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QUOTE(Chiahh @ Sep 13 2012, 02:41 PM)
Dear Dario, i recently sold my house. and after signning the S&P, i decided to withdraw it.  At that point of time, the S&P was not stamped yet, and i called my lawyer and ask whether i can abort the transaction since it is not stamped yet. But according to my lawyer, he said that the S&P is valid although it is not stamp, and the purchaser wil have the right to ask for penalty from me.  Is that correct?

thanks
*
Yes. That is correct. The purchaser has the right to compel you to proceed with the transaction.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 13 2012, 05:51 PM

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QUOTE(brianccg @ Sep 13 2012, 05:28 PM)
My banker not allow me to use the same SPA lawyer for loan agreement.  As I tot I appoint same lawyer for both SPA and loan agreement will be faster transaction. My point is will it be any potential delay in docs if I using two lawyer for SPA and loan?
*
Of course, the transaction would take longer as there would be another party to communicate with.

Whether it would delay the whole transaction, I can't comment on that. There have been cases where there were 3 solicitors in the transaction and yet was completed in time, and there were cases where there was only 1 common solicitor and still, it took longer than the prescribed period - partly due to the lackadaisical attitude of the lawyer.


TSdariofoo
post Sep 13 2012, 05:57 PM

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QUOTE(DrTay @ Sep 12 2012, 03:55 AM)
The agent that sold me this unit from the developer asked me just forget and let go and sell it off to somebody else. I have been selling, and recently received an offer to purchase. I feel so bad that the problems are not resolved yet. It is unfair for the new buyer too.
*
You have the duty to inform the purchaser of the problem. If you do not do so and the purchaser later discovers the misrepresentation/ concealment of fact, the purchaser can sue you and claim from you the costs of rectifying same or even repudiate the contract as surely the purchaser would not proceed with the purchase had this fact been informed to her.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 14 2012, 04:44 PM

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QUOTE(Newcastle @ Sep 13 2012, 10:43 PM)
Recently the trend is like that.........I don't know why..........my banker also the same and same goes to my sister with different banker. Don't know what logical reason behind it.
*
When you apply for the loan itself, you must check with the bank if your SPA lawyer can do the loan doc. If they say no and you want the same lawyer to do it, you have the option of another bank. If you keep quiet about it or don't push for it, of course the bank officer would push it to his preferred law firm, who may give him a referral commission.

It is not a trend. Banks have their guidelines and rules. It is for you to find out early and make your decision based on what you want. Once you sign the letter of offer , you are already bound by the terms of the bank.
TSdariofoo
post Sep 14 2012, 04:54 PM

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QUOTE(firee818 @ Sep 14 2012, 08:17 AM)
Dear Dario,
Then,what is the purpose of stamping?
I thought the stamping  is for the legitimate of the contract and if the contract is not stamping, it can be null and void.

Appreciate your advice.
*
Who told you that "if the contract is not stamping, it can be null and void" ? That is not true. A contract is only void if it is against the Contracts Act 1950.

In this case, the vendor has not even signed the SPA. So, even if the purchaser has a copy in his lawyer's file, it still can't be stamped.

However, the purchaser can fall back on the letter of offer to purchase, where an earnest deposit has been paid. He can also refer to the correspondence where the SPA has been finalised, executed by him and forwarded to the vendor with the cheque for 10%, but the vendor now refuses to sign.

He may not be able to exercise his rights according to the terms of the SPA, but it does not mean that he cannot refer to the existence of a finalised SPA which he has signed and which the vendor refuses to do so. These are 2 different things.

Even if the purchaser requests for compensation, he can argue that it is customary for the 10% deposit to be refunded and for a further 10% to be paid as damages.

Basically, his rights are protected under common law.


TSdariofoo
post Sep 14 2012, 04:58 PM

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QUOTE(Stamp @ Sep 14 2012, 02:52 PM)
mr dariofoo,

need your insight on this case, owner vs developer. link below.

http://forum.lowyat.net/index.php?showtopi...&#entry54608175
*
DrTay has already posed her query in this thread and I've already advised her.

In fact, one forummer has quoted my advice in that thread itself. sweat.gif sweat.gif
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post Sep 14 2012, 04:59 PM

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QUOTE(shawnk @ Sep 14 2012, 04:09 PM)
Hi,

Recently my MOT lawyer is trying to get the grant from Jabatan Tanah (W.P.) after giving them the blanket of consent but they say all the application is being KIV due to some internal conflict by the approval department and another department. Anyone heard of this?
*
Haven't heard of this.

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