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 Lawyer's Corner v2, One-stop centre for any legal queries

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TSdariofoo
post Dec 8 2012, 02:19 PM

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QUOTE(laptopdoctortom @ Dec 8 2012, 01:40 PM)

Added on December 8, 2012, 1:42 pmafter reading this unfortunate experience - i feel afraid , my purchase of a property going on now and
the vendor also playing the fool
but if we use lawyers and do things in proper order - should be quite safe ?
or purchasers are always at a risk when buying subsale property ?
*
If you get a good real estate agent, good lawyer and good mortgage consultant, there should not be anything to worry about.

There is no such thing as extra risk when buying subsale. Risk is there in all property purchases. It is just a matter of how the above parties act in your best interests to mitigate/reduce the risk involved.


TSdariofoo
post Dec 8 2012, 02:23 PM

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QUOTE(Tsuto @ Dec 8 2012, 02:01 PM)
Where can i look for whether the real estate agent who asked me to sign an exclusive authorization to sell letter is a genuine agent or not?
*
Here:

http://www.lppeh.gov.my/searchregistrant.p...l&search=Search

icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 8 2012, 09:57 PM

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QUOTE(Tsuto @ Dec 8 2012, 02:41 PM)
OK I found out that he is only a negotiator and not registered real estate.
Does he has the right to ask me to sign the exclusive authorisation to sell and demand me to pay the company the professional fee of 2% if I am to sell the property to another buyer using another agent within the exclusive period?
*
Did you browse throught the website to get more info or did you just do the search?

This website may shed more light on this:

http://miea.com.my/site/index.php?cat=64

If he uses the agency's standard booking form and payment is made to the agency as stakeholder, there should not be a problem. More so if he is a registered negotiator. Just make sure no payment is made personally in his name. Browse the net for more info to assure yourself.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 10 2012, 09:12 PM

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QUOTE(BM81 @ Dec 10 2012, 08:21 PM)
Dear Sir Dariofoo
I have 2 properties that I wanted to sell:

a) A condo which I bought in 2005, refinance it on 2009. Would the RPGT tax applicable on my case?

b) Another house which I bought in 2009. Would the RPGT tax applicable on my case?

Hope you can advice on scenarios below:
- Should I sell (b) first, and exercise my 1 house RPGT tax exemption, then only sell (a)
or
Can I sell (a) and then sell (b) but exercise my 1 house RPGT tax exemption on (b). This is because (b) is my second house and I will be taxed if I sell my second house.

Hope you can advise.

Thanks.
*
a - no RPGT as date of acquisition is in 2005. Refinance does not matter.

b - yes it would.

You can sell A first but exercise the exemption on B as the exemption does not factor in whether the unit you are selling is your first or second sale. It is a one-time exception which can be applied at any time for any property within the RPGT time frame when you want to sell it. nod.gif

So, your statement that "I will be taxed if I sell my second house" is not accurate.

Cheers. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 11 2012, 12:01 PM

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QUOTE(itanium2 @ Dec 10 2012, 11:34 PM)
Hi Dario,

I was told effective Jan 2012, a sub sale leasehold condo with master title no longer require state consent.
State consent is only required if the condo has a strata title. Is this true?

Thanks.
*
Which State?
TSdariofoo
post Dec 11 2012, 12:02 PM

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QUOTE(lollipop12345 @ Dec 10 2012, 11:53 PM)
mad.gif Hi. I just found out that my developer has sold me (a nonbumi) a bumi landed property. Bank loan can't get through and I have paid a sizeable downpayment. What should I do?
*
What does your SPA lawyer have to say about this? Have you spoken to the developer about it? What is their response? Sorry to reply your question with more questions but I would need more info before advising you further.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Dec 11 2012, 12:03 PM
TSdariofoo
post Dec 11 2012, 12:09 PM

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QUOTE(AMINT @ Dec 11 2012, 01:31 AM)
Dear lawyers, may I know what is the difference between "assignment" and "sales and purchase agreement"? Can someone just have "assignment" instead of "sales and purchase agreement"?
*
A transfer is always by way of sale & purchase agreement (SPA), if there is money (or some other form of consideration) changing hands.

An SPA is not proof of ownership. It must be supplemented by an MOT (if property is with title) or deed of assignment (if without).

Exception: If there is no consideration, then it can be via a deed of gift or just a transfer via MOT with love and affection as the consideration. There is no need to draft a SPA for such cases.


Assignment in the Malaysian context refers to a deed of assignment (DOA), which only comes into the picture when the property in question does not have an individual title, eg a condo under a master title and the developer has not applied for strata (indiv) title yet. So, when the first purchaser (A) wants to sell it to another party (B), there would be a SPA plus DOA to evidence an assignment of rights from A to B, and so on and so forth. The trail of DOAs must be kept as evidence of continuity of assignment.

Once the strata title is out, then the assignment is no longer relevant, as in Malaysia, registration is everything.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 12 2012, 11:14 PM

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All queries will be answered tmr. Cheers
TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2012, 04:37 PM

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QUOTE(spk @ Dec 12 2012, 12:06 AM)
Dear Dariofoo,
Need your advice, pls.
1.  I noticed my appointed lawyer firm for loan agreement mentioned in a letter sent to developer that they are acted for lender (my end financier).
2. I was copied in the letter with a note that prior to release loan, I have to settle progressive payment (under construction property) due as the lawyer and the lender will not responsible for late payment interest.
3. legal fee for loan agreement is borne by me and it is part of loan sum.

Based on the above, I feel that the lawyer doesn't act on my behalf.  What do you think?

It took 2.5 month (from the date of SPA) for  the lawyer to get loan Security document perfected and legally binded.  Is this length of time considered late or normal?

*
The lawyer acts for the bank even though you bear the legal fees. Weird, but that is the way the process is in the system.

Was there any penalty by the developer? If no penalty, then all is ok.

QUOTE(spk @ Dec 12 2012, 12:06 AM)

How can I ask for refund from end financier for the differential amount?

Thanks
*
Speak to your loan lawyer and also the mortgage consultant about it to arrange for the excess to be paid to you.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2012, 04:40 PM

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QUOTE(Maylam @ Dec 12 2012, 03:35 PM)
I rent a house to a Korean tenant , they move in in August 2012. After move in, the water pipe was leaking, within a week , the developer had fixed it.  Today, the tenant show me a water bill, the meter  reading as at 20jul was 27m3, and as at 22No was 486m3. So after work out the Nov water bill charges is RM698.

The tenant suppose to pay RM4k for December rental, but he only pay RM3300 for rental, cos he deduct RM 700 for water bill. He claimed, the water bill high is due to the previous pipe leaking.

May I know, what can I do, and my rights at this kind of issue.
*
What is stated in your tenancy agreement? Is there a clause to deal with such matters.

What was the reading when the pipe was fixed? Would that not be the most accurate reading in order for you to determine the cut off mark? Worst case scenario - calculate the monthly average and deduct accordingly. At the very least, they must pay for actual usage. They can't refuse to pay for water at all!
TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2012, 04:42 PM

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QUOTE(idoblu @ Dec 12 2012, 05:38 PM)
Hi Dariofoo,

1. If for selling a subsale property thru an agent, after them taking their fees and in the unforeseen circumstances that somehow the property can't be transfer
for some reason but not due to the vendors fault, what's going to happen to the fee paid to the agent? Since I have to refund all deposit but part of that went to paying the agent
(after signing SPA)

2. Does Selangor state law still requires consent to be given before the subsale of a leasehold landed property that has already been issued individual title?

3. Any complications selling to a couple but one is local the other a foreigner? What consent must be given for this and usually how long does this takes?

Thanks in advance for your valuable advise  notworthy.gif
*
1. What is stated in the booking form between the parties? It should contain a clause in relation to the agent's fees.

2. Yes, if it is stated so in the title.

3. Consent from FIC. How long? Depends on the efficiency of the parties - usually 1-3 months.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2012, 04:45 PM

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QUOTE(MR_alien @ Dec 12 2012, 08:13 PM)
anyone here can tell me what is "grant of probate"?
my dad has passed away for nearly 2 years already
and 1 lawyer is responsible for transferring all the property to each of us
and thn last week, came a letter from LHDN for my dad's tax refund
and since my dad have passed away, i asked LHDN what is needed for me to claim it(as wife or son)
LHDN replied need death certificate and a thing call "grant of probate" or "surat wakil kuasa"...
my mom proceed to ask the lawyer for it, and the lawyer somehow say that was "left out/tertinggal" back thn and if we wanted to obtain that grant of probate, thn the whole process have to start over
i was like, how can it be "left out"
anyone here can advice?
*
Grant of Probate is a document which empowers the executor to deal with the estate of a person who died leaving a will.

Dealing with the estate would mean dealing with the properties, monies, belongings and also to cover debts, liabilities as provided for in the will.

I do not understand how in your case, the lawyer purportedly transferred all the properties without the Grant of Probate being first obtained from the Court? That should've been the first thing done.


TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2012, 04:46 PM

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QUOTE(kyle9 @ Dec 13 2012, 11:45 AM)
Hi,

I have one question,
is the price calculation/lawyer fees/tax for transferring a property to another name via a will is the same as buying a property?

Thanks
*
Kindly download and read the SRO at the first page of this thread. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2012, 05:00 PM

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QUOTE(MR_alien @ Dec 13 2012, 04:52 PM)
yeah...same as what i think as well, no grant of probate, how to transfer but still me and my family dn't know much abt laws as well
so maybe he kinda lied and say he left out that and if we wanted that, we will have to start from the beginning
but nvm, just now after some calls to LHDN, the ppl there recommend "letters of administration" since no need lawyer
she said proceed to high court to ask the procedure 1st
can u tell me what document needed and whats the procedure to get this "letter of administration"?
*
Boss, was there a will or not?

If got will - Grant of Probate. No will - letters of admin (LA).

Both require going to Court to obtain an order. Both require a lawyer to be appointed to prepare it.

LA is more complicated than probate as all the beneficiaries need to repudiate their claim to be the administrator (same function as an executor explained earlier). The administrator will administer the estate accordingly once the order has been given.

Go back to the lawyer again and ask what was done. Did you pay fees? What did you pay for?
TSdariofoo
post Dec 13 2012, 05:03 PM

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QUOTE(idoblu @ Dec 13 2012, 04:55 PM)
1. the booking form only says if either parties cancel before SPA, but what happens if SPA already signed but somehow down the line,
the property cant be transfer?
*
Never encountered such a situation before. hmm.gif Well, you have to refund the purchaser in full first, and then settle between you and the agent. See what can be worked out. In the absence of anything in writing, it's hard to advice.

What was the reason for the SPA to be aborted?

TSdariofoo
post Dec 14 2012, 11:01 AM

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QUOTE(MR_alien @ Dec 13 2012, 05:15 PM)
there was a will but the lawyer(not sure true or not) said the will was somewhat "incomplete"
so we are not particularly sure
just now when talking to the LHDN staff, after she asked, she called back and say if grand of probate surely need lawyer and some fee
whereas LA can do it in high court, she asked me to go to high court and ask the procedure...didn't mention also need a lawyer
if we need lawyer thn i think am gonna just let it go, just RM1k+ only...dn't feel like paying the lawyer anything anymore since paid like 10k to him already

i checked back the thing he charged us
there was "filing fee for petition for grant of letter of administration with will annexed - RM88"
thn below a few there is
"filing fee for grant of LA - RM212"
does this mean there is LA?..and i can get it from the lawyer?(a copy)
*
Are you in Semenanjung or Sabah/Sarawak? Because there is no such concept of "grant of letter of administration with will annexed" in S'jung.

If got will - GoP. If no will - LA.

How can LA with will annexed? rclxub.gif

Anyway, my suggestion is to get this copy of the LA from the lawyer since 10k has been paid to obtain it. If nothing is done - complain!
TSdariofoo
post Dec 14 2012, 11:01 AM

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QUOTE(idoblu @ Dec 13 2012, 05:20 PM)
just wonderng for now. hope that wont happen  tongue.gif
thank you sir  notworthy.gif
*
doh.gif doh.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 14 2012, 11:02 AM

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QUOTE(rayzrblade @ Dec 13 2012, 10:29 PM)
I need brainy lawyers help please.

I stay in condo.
My upper level unit pipe has leakage.
Causes serious water damage to my plaster ceiling.
According to some act the landlord upstairs should be responsible for fixing his units pipe and bear all the cost.
But he refuse to pay for the cost for fixing my ceiling saying no such law.

Lawyers, enlighten me please.
*
This question has been posed and answered not too long ago in this thread. Look it up. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Dec 14 2012, 03:28 PM

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QUOTE(itanium2 @ Dec 14 2012, 12:27 PM)
Hi Dario, you missed my question.  smile.gif
Just to add the condo is in K.L.
Thanks.
*
Sorry for missing that out. Yes you are right but I am not aware that it was effective 1 Jan 2012. As far as sale by way of assignment, consent is not required.
TSdariofoo
post Dec 17 2012, 01:00 PM

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QUOTE(nookie188 @ Dec 14 2012, 04:38 PM)
dario boss

for a freehold 8year old  property with title, no lien, if the vendor decides to use the purchaser's lawyer , what are the risks involved?
assuming that the vendor has experience with S&P and is quite confident of vetting the draft before finalization..
risk of lawyer running off with the proceeds? shocking.gif
*
Risk is always there. In every case where the lawyer holds stakeholder monies the risk is there for the lawyer to abscond. How do you tell whether it is going to happen or not? Your guess is as good as mine.

If, as you said, "vendor has experience with S&P and is quite confident of vetting the draft before finalization" then you mitigate the risk , as all the clauses would be fairly balanced in the SPA.

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