QUOTE(T231H @ Aug 11 2015, 09:07 PM)

what do you think now....about when the maths is correct then is it obvious that IRR can be used as a meaningful representation even if the investment is less than 1 year?

actually still
first I am clear that on this "If the maths is correct,
it cannot be 'more accurate'. Or less accurate".
then I got this..." we are projecting or extrapolating the ROI% to its annualised IRR rate, and
how many times we are extrapolating it depends on how closed is the investment time to 1-year. The shorter is the invested time, the more times we are extrapolating it.
So, if you truly understand how the maths works, and the whole process of converting the ROI% to IRR,
then it is up to you whether you want to do it or not. Then the answer is obvious whether it is still "a meaningful representation even if the investment is less than 1 year".

eventhough I am still

...but will Let the above thoughts sink in first, before giving up!

...until I can get a definite "YES" or "NO" answer to "is IRR a meaningful representation even if the investment is less than 1 year?"