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 Lawyer's Corner v2, One-stop centre for any legal queries

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TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2012, 12:31 AM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Jul 31 2012, 11:19 PM)
dario
If owner pays service fee monthly without fail but his apartment has been broken into.

Can he win compensation if he decide to sue ?

Do you have any experience on this ?
*
There are lots of cases like these. Some win, some lose.

Few things to take into account:

1. Sue the right party. The right party would be the JMB or the MC, not the security company.

2. The suit is for negligence. JMB would have to be shown to be negligent by appointing a security company whihc is not up to par. The test is objective. One needs to look at the facts of the case first. What were the precautions taken by JMB ? How many guards, security system, CCTV, access cards etc. Did they fail to take precautions?

3. JMB is not respnsible for the safety and security of private units. They are only responsible for the common property only. However, if the access point and entry point into the condo is guarded by individuals appointed by the JMB, then they have a duty to check and inspect the guests that enter. It would be a stronger case if it was an inside job, i.e. the guards themselves did it.

4. Losses must be proven specifically with documents. Jewelry lost? Produce receipt. Cash? Show bank accounts. Other items - must show receipts or it may be deemed to be an afterthought.

5. Does the JMb have money? This is important. No point obtaining a paper judgment.

It will not be easy to successfully sue the JMB, so proper preparation and gathering of evidence is very important before deciding whether to proceed.
TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2012, 09:13 AM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Aug 1 2012, 09:01 AM)
3. What do you mean by responsible for common property only ? If owner unit is broken in, it is a private unit.

5. MC said they don't have much money to buy CCTV or hire more guards, can that be taken as good excuse ?

Every month, there are few break-ins during the past year.
*
3. Common property is everything else except the individual units. Check the definition in the Act. The Act does not place any obligations upon the MC to ensure the safety of the indiv units. Burden of proof is upon the victim to show that the MC was negligent in its duty to guard the common property, leading to an encroachment into the private unit. Example would be like the guardhouse scenario in my last post.

5. If they can show that they don't have money and that is due to the non payment by owners, then whoh can blame them? At the end of the day, the MC is by the owners. Even if you sue them,would they have money to pay?


TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2012, 10:29 AM

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QUOTE(H3lpM3 @ Aug 1 2012, 09:57 AM)
hi Mr Foo...
any comments regarding my post above...? many thanks!
*
I would suggest that you consult a lawyer and get a proper tenancy agreement done. Your draft is clearly insufficient. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 3 2012, 04:13 PM

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QUOTE(marcus1522 @ Aug 3 2012, 12:05 PM)
hi, wanted to ask..

previous vendor owed management fees, TNB and INDAH water bills,
all this bills under me to pay them off?

should my lawyer let me know before he pass all the documents n keys to me?

now, he is refused to settle all these for me =(

SOS! ='(
*
What was provided for in your SPA? All terms and conditions are so you'll need to refer there.

Normally if got outstanding outgoings by vendor then there should be a clause that the balance purchase price will be deducted to settle those bills and only then will the balance be paid to the vendor. Check your SPA.

Normally it is the lawyer's duty to ensure that outgoings are settled. It is only not their duty to ensure that change of name (for utilities accounts) is done. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 3 2012, 04:15 PM

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QUOTE(nagflar @ Aug 3 2012, 12:26 PM)
3k plus is something  discharge fee or bank fee  . ? is that normal charger ?
*
Probably you didn't factor in legal fees for loan documentation. There's 2 set of legal fees. One for SPA and for loan. Get an invoice from them and check. Easy. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 3 2012, 04:23 PM

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QUOTE(WEELIN1012 @ Aug 3 2012, 01:42 PM)
What i plan to do is i just wait for the buyer's loan approved and SnP, and do not appoint lawyer.

Basically, i'm thinking to do the following:
1.  Cut water and electricity connection
2.  Fill-up the CHKT after SnP is signed and get stamp from LHDN, and pass a copy to buyer's lawyer.

Do you think i'm too ridiculous to do the above without appoint laywer to act for me.  Bascially, i believe SnP is quite standard.  For the Indah Water side, do i need to cut as well?
*
Your question is whether I think you're ridiculous to do the above without appointing a lawyer to act on your behalf?

My answer is NO, it is not ridiculous.

For Indah Water, there's nothing to cut. You just fax to Indah Water the relevant pages of the SPA and they'll update their system to include the purchaser as the client.

icon_rolleyes.gif

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Aug 3 2012, 04:24 PM
TSdariofoo
post Aug 3 2012, 09:36 PM

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QUOTE(freestyler87 @ Aug 3 2012, 06:44 PM)
SOS,

My dad have a shoplot which rent out,
the guy steal electricity and caused alot of trouble which not pay rent to my dad for 3 months and above, my dad received Red Letter from TNB regarding this issue which the electricity bills
damage RM10k ++

may i know what is the action i should take, in order to not break the law.?

please advise thanks
*
Pay TNB and then look for the tenant. If can trace, go for civil suit to recover. I can't trace, nothing much can do. No point wasting money on legal fees just to get a paper judgment. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 3 2012, 09:37 PM

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QUOTE(WEELIN1012 @ Aug 3 2012, 05:10 PM)
Thank you very much for your feedback. 
I will just go ahead without lawyer.  flex.gif
Anything related to SnP, name transfer, cukai tanah and cukai taksiran i will just let buyer's lawyer to handle.
*
Read the draft SPA properly. For change of name, make sure that purchaser does it, not you.
TSdariofoo
post Aug 5 2012, 05:15 PM

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QUOTE(phdmaster @ Aug 5 2012, 12:13 AM)
Hi Dario,

I have notified the purchaser's lawyer of my intention to terminate the agreement because the timeline for "conditions precedent" to be met has lapsed. What I am worried is whether the deal can still somehow go through? I am not legally represented.

If a S&P has lapsed and there is no written mutual agreement to extend the timeline for completion, can the transaction still be completed "accidentally"? What happens if the purchaser's financier release the balance sum to the purchaser's lawyer either accidentally or intentionally? I mean, is it possible for a deal to somehow go through despite the S&P having "expired"? I am not clear with the processes. Does the vendor's lender need to get signature from the vendor to accept the Balance Sum and complete the transfer? I am quite sure the check and balance process is stronger than that but I just wonder.

If there is a possibility, is there anything I can do to minimise the chances?

Thanks
*
If the time given has lapsed, you can opt to repudiate the agreement by giving notice in writing to the other side. I'm sure that would have been provided for in your SPA. Look at it and see how the procedure is. Once you give notice in writing and follow the procedures as per the SPA, there is no way for the SPA to proceed any further. As such, the issue of the transaction "accidently" proceeding does not arise at all.

If you do not give notice in writing to repudiate, the other side may assume that you have impliedly consented to an extension of time (subject to whether there is a non-waiver clause in your SPA). You would then later be estopped from asserting on your rights and argue that it has lapsed.

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TSdariofoo
post Aug 5 2012, 05:16 PM

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QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Aug 5 2012, 01:09 PM)
I got a question,
I have sold my house and still receiving the half yearly assessment...I have already informed the purchaser's lawyer to deal with it, but again and again still not cancelling my details. What action should I take now?
*
Does your SPA state that the purchaser's lawyer is obliged to do it? Or is it the purchaser? You might be complaining to the wrong channel here.
TSdariofoo
post Aug 6 2012, 02:11 AM

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QUOTE(phdmaster @ Aug 5 2012, 10:57 PM)
Thank you so much, Dario. I have given them notice by writing.
*
Make sure you get the notice sent by hand and acknowledged in writing.

QUOTE(phdmaster @ Aug 5 2012, 10:57 PM)
Anyway, just for knowledge and curiosity sake, assuming I did not give them notice in writing to terminate and they have proceeded on the assumption of implied consent, shouldn't the process hit a brick wall sooner or later? I assume, at some stage, any one of the lawyers or the banks would need to see a written agreement that the SPA timeline has been extended, right? Otherwise, how can the whole legal process be completed with an "expired" SPA?
*
Well, before the bank releases drawdown of the loan, they would request for a letter from the lawyer confirming that the vnedor has consented an extension of time to complete the SPA. There is no requirement that the letter must be from the vendor (assuming that the vendor is not represented). So, the lawyer may still proceed. However, that is not only unethical but is also serious misrepresentation (even fraud, I might add) and it can result in serious consequences against the lawyer concerned in the form of disciplinary proceedings which could even be initiated by the bank.
TSdariofoo
post Aug 6 2012, 04:24 PM

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QUOTE(steventan85 @ Aug 6 2012, 03:29 PM)
hi Dario,

juz received a quotation upon request

noticed that there are few charges the law firm charged me :

Disbursement
Registration fee for :
entry / withdrawal of caveat RM340+RM80
Charge : RM 120
Application and registration fees for consent to charge RM100
Application for consent to charge : RM50

Legal Fees :
Charges annexure : RM200
Entry and withdrawal of Caveat ; RM350
Consent to charge :RM300

It is a freehold condo , with master title , still under construction.

The solicitor insisted that i still need to pay for it even after 2 yrs when my condo unit complete... is it true ? i referred to all quotation samples provided by forumers and non of them get charged for this ....

is it compulsory ? or it is depend on the bank ?
*
These are the types of lawyers that put the legal profession to shame. doh.gif

How can they charge you for Charge Annexure when there is a Master Title? The bank cannot create a charge over the master title.

And when there is Master Title, the banks would not lodge a caveat over it. They would consent to a waiver.

This lawyer is taking you for a ride. sweat.gif

Furthermore, for freehold, why the need for consent to charge? Does the land come with any restrictions in interest? hmm.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 6 2012, 10:32 PM

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QUOTE(steventan85 @ Aug 6 2012, 07:30 PM)
so meaning to say , the charges are not relevant to me even after the condo complete ?

as for restriction in interest , i referred to the brochure by developer , encumbrances : NIL , so it is a NO right ? smile.gif
*
For charge annexure it is only due when strata title is out. By right they can't bill you now for it. Furthermore, there is no requirement for you to retain them to do the strata title later anyway.

Encumbrances refers to a charge over the master title. Restrictions refer to whether consent is needed or otherwise.
TSdariofoo
post Aug 7 2012, 02:44 PM

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QUOTE(axantra @ Aug 6 2012, 10:41 PM)
hi dario..just wonder. all the charges sample are for buyer. how bout seller? do refer the same table??
tq
*
For seller, the professional fees would be the same if you appoint your own lawyer.

If you authorise the purchaser's lawyer to do the redemption of your loan for you, then the legal fees are only:

1) Discharge of charge/deed of RnR: RM300 (add RM100 if RnR involves revocation of PA)
2) Filing of CKHT forms : RM300/pax.

For disbursements, it would be much lesser, and depends on whether the property is still encumbered to your financier or not.

I'm sure there would be a sample somewhere in v1.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Aug 7 2012, 02:47 PM
TSdariofoo
post Aug 7 2012, 02:49 PM

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QUOTE(vxywaz @ Aug 7 2012, 02:39 PM)
Hi Dario, just came across the clause that make me couldn't sleep well at night :'(

I bought an undercon leasehold condo from a developer. The S.A told me that I just need to fork out cash for down payment & loan documentation stamp duty, the rest will be borne by the developer.

When I look at the clause in the details of purchase (DOP), it is written that:
1. free legal fees on S&P
2. free legal fees on Loan documentation excluding stamp duty

Is there any other extra money i have to fork out besides the 10% down payment & 0.5% loan agreement stamp duty? Appreciate if you can solve my queries..
*
You would need to pay for stamp duty upon the memorandum of transfer when the property is completed and strata title is issued. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 7 2012, 04:15 PM

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QUOTE(vxywaz @ Aug 7 2012, 03:22 PM)
but the stamp duty for loan agreement still have to be paid upon executing it right?
*
Yes

QUOTE(vxywaz @ Aug 7 2012, 03:22 PM)
How about disbursement charges? are those be considered as part of the loan documentation charges also?
*
You should not get confused by mixing up the terms - fees and charges.

Just look at it this way for a moment:

SPA - legal fees, stamp duty for MOT, and disbursements. 3 separate things.

LOAN - legal fees, stamp duty for loan doc, and disbursements. 3 separate things.

From what you have informed, the developer will bear the legal fees for SPA and LOAN. As I have informed you, stamp duty for MOT is not applicable yet. So, it is confirmed that you would have to pay stamp duty for loan doc.

Developer will bear legal fees fro SPA and LOAN.

So now all you need to do is to check with the developer if disbursements are to be borne by you or whether it is included. Then you'll get your answer.


TSdariofoo
post Aug 7 2012, 04:23 PM

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QUOTE(khedge @ Aug 7 2012, 03:58 PM)
Hi Dario,

Would appreciate if you can advise on the next course of action for my sis-in-law who is a first time home buyer. Here's the chronology of events :

1. Paid earnest deposit 3% directly to owner in the presence of agent (owner insisted deposit to be paid to him directly)

2. Agent issued Offer to Purchase form with additional clause "Subject to loan approval and deposit to be refunded if loan rejected". Both buyer and seller signed on 9/6/2012

3. There were some hiccups in her application and in the end the banker rejected her application verbally on 15/7/12.

4. Informed the owner of loan rejection but owner refused to refund the earnest deposit. Tried to ask the agent to talk to owner for refund.

5. Owner still refused, quoting that the grace period of 15 working days has lapsed as stated in the Offer Letter, hence he has the right to forfeit the earnerst deposit.

Would like to verify if the owner has the legal right to forfeit the earnest deposit? The bank issued an official rejection letter on 23/7/12 so does the additional written clause for "the deposit to be refunded if loan rejected" override the 15 days clause?

Thanks
*
If possible, scan and attach the Offer to Purchase here so I can take a look and advise you better. icon_rolleyes.gif

TSdariofoo
post Aug 7 2012, 09:57 PM

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QUOTE(khedge @ Aug 7 2012, 04:38 PM)
Please refer below.....however I've only cropped and display the essential information.  smile.gif[attachmentid=2988032]
*
Poorly drafted and very ambigious. It can be argued either way. However I would say that you have a stronger case for full refund of the deposit as-

1. It is stated that the above terms is subject to loan approval. As such, the 15 days does not even begin to run until your loan is approved.

2. It should state the number of days for you to apply for a loan and obtain approval. Perhaps 10 working days. Snce there is nothing there to reflect a time limit, the benefit of the doubt must be given in your favour., i.e. partiew did not agree on a limit.

3. It should state a number of days for you to show proof of rejectal of loan. Mre often than not, a clause requiring proof via letter of rejectal by the bank would be inserted. Snce there is none there, the benefit of the doubt must be given in your favour again, i.e. that there is no need to even show proof of rejectal in writing (verbal is ok) and that there is no time limit for you to furnish the letter. It's better for your case that you have a letter of rejectal.

Insist for you deposit to be refunded. If the agent is evasive, consult a lawyer and take it further. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 8 2012, 10:05 AM

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QUOTE(Kentthye @ Aug 7 2012, 11:29 PM)
SPA - legal fees, stamp duty for MOT, and disbursements. 3 separate things.

LOAN - legal fees, stamp duty for loan doc, and disbursements. 3 separate things.

Let's say if SPA-legal fees is RM3000
How much is Loan-legal fees?

Will it be the same like SPA legal fees RM3000?

Thanks.
*
Buying from developer under Schedule G or H agreement attracts lower scale of fees. Please download and refer to SRO at first page of this thread. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 8 2012, 10:12 AM

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QUOTE(highcourt @ Aug 7 2012, 11:53 PM)
Hi Dario,

If I am a seller of a freehold property and I can read some of the legal clauses and maybe spot those outrageous terms to protect myself, is it generally OK to use the buyer's lawyer to save on the legal fees? Or is it always better to engage our own lawyers?

Thank you.
*
Kindly refer to the first few pages of v1 of Lawyer's Corner. There has been a long discussion on this topic there. If there are any further enquiries after you peruse the posts, do come back and ask. icon_rolleyes.gif

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