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 Lawyer's Corner v2, One-stop centre for any legal queries

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TSdariofoo
post Jul 26 2012, 06:21 PM

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QUOTE(WyjSwmW @ Jul 26 2012, 06:10 PM)
Hi Dario,

I intend to purchase a property (a subsale unit).
My doubts are:-

1) The developer has gone bankrupt and now under a Badan Pengurusan (or Liquidator). May you advise in this case, what things should I be careful off?

2) I went to a few banks, some keen to lend me money but some dont. Why? Is it because the developer has gone bankrupt?

3) If the developer has gone bankrupt, will it be very difficult for me to transfer name from the current owner to my name (be it whatever documents). At present, there is only a Master title but no Strata title.

4) Do you know roughly what is the bank checklist (docs required) before the bank will really release the funds to the owner?

Thanks dario.
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1. This issue/topic has been asked and discussed before earlier in this thread so do read up.

2. Not sure. Perhaps you ought to ask a banker.

3. If the Liquidator has sufficient records and documents, it ought to be ok. If the developer left things in a mess, it may take awhile to reconstruct records from scratch. To get strata title is very hard to say as the Liquidator's job is to save money, not spend it. Furthermore. any money the developer has left would go to the creditors. However, one can transact by way of assignment - Deed of Assignment.

4. It's quite a lengthy list - around 20-25 documents. Any reason in particular as to why you ask?

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Jul 26 2012, 06:22 PM
TSdariofoo
post Jul 27 2012, 06:20 PM

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QUOTE(mizeily @ Jul 27 2012, 07:39 AM)
Hi dario..

Another question..can i change the S&P lawyer if there is another lawyer that quotes a better fee eventhough i've already paid 3% deposit on the property?

Tq
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As long as your lawyer has not started work, it's ok. Otherwise, you may need to reimburse them for any expenses incurred. If they have drafted the SPA, then you would need to pay more - how much? Subject to nego but not more than half of full scaled fees. icon_rolleyes.gif

TSdariofoo
post Jul 28 2012, 01:42 PM

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QUOTE(keongzai79 @ Jul 28 2012, 12:25 PM)
Dario,

First of all, thanks for your advice couple of months ago on my house selling transaction.

Right now i have move in to my new house and is one of the committee member of the residence association.

The new house is located in MP Sepang vicinity and one of my neighbor house is undergo massive renovation and most of the residents here commented that such renovation is definitely against the regulation set by the local authority. Few complaints has been forwarded to MP Sepang and notis saman and notis pemberhentian kerja has been issue to the said house owner.

However, house owner seems to ignore the notices but proceed with the renovation works.

Just want to check with you what can we do as the resident association and as his neighbor to make sure he is adhere to the regulation? FYI, all the house owners did sign the deed of mutual covenant during the house purchase's process.

Thanks!
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Deed of mutual convenant with whom? This is landed property right? Or is it a GNG scheme?

Anyway, the RR can't do much. One way is for the neighbour who is directly affected to take legal action under tort for nuisance. An injunction can also be obtained to stop the nuisance. That may work. However, would the said neighbour want to cough up legal fees for it?

Another way is go put more pressure on MPS to take actual action against the owner. If I'm not mistaken they have the right to even destroy the illegal structures and bill the cost of same to the owner. Since things are moving slow, either ask around if any resident knows someone high up in MPS or State govt who can put some pressure on enforcement or you can complaint to our ADUN and highlight it in the media as to MPS' lackdaisical attitude. That ought to shake them up to act.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Jul 28 2012, 01:43 PM
TSdariofoo
post Jul 29 2012, 10:44 AM

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QUOTE(pristina @ Jul 29 2012, 09:45 AM)
What about if the spouse with no children??
*
Then it goes to the spouse
TSdariofoo
post Jul 29 2012, 10:46 AM

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Dear all,

Taking a break for the rest of the day to attend OPIN 2.0.

Hope to see you guys there as well. Cheers. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 29 2012, 10:39 PM

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QUOTE(garagesell @ Jul 29 2012, 10:47 AM)
guys.. give me quick answer.. how to calculate for lawyer fee for the property cost RM420K? buyer and seller one fee or what will be charge or use one party lawyer?  (sub sale)
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Use the calculator at the first page, please. It is scaled according to the price. Purchaser appointe own lawyer and pays full fees. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 29 2012, 10:43 PM

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QUOTE(stabella @ Jul 29 2012, 03:29 PM)
Thanks god I found this thread.

Dear Lawyer,

Seek for your kind assist to help me on this: (RPGT)

Grandpa passed away, the sons got the name transfer successful from the letter authority assigned from high court on May 2012
Grandpa owns the land from year 1919 (I saw from the title: tarikh mula-mula pemberimilikan : 29/12/1919)
The title also showing "didaftarkan pada 8/12/1997"

Now, we have done the MOT from grandpa to sons on 2012, which means less than 5 years, there is 5% on profit charges for RPGT

Does this applied on my case? no RPGT charge on this?
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Are you asking whether there is RPGT for a transfer of a property pursuant to a probate/L.A at this stage or whether there is R PGT if the beneficiaries now decide to sell the property?
TSdariofoo
post Jul 30 2012, 10:34 AM

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QUOTE(un.deux.trois @ Jul 30 2012, 06:52 AM)
If developer says SPA is free, what costs do they bear? Everything associated with SPA? When to pay MOT?
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Normally it would only be the legal fees. Disbursements would still have to be borne by the purchaser UNLESS it is specifically stated by the developer. Check with them. MOT is when title it out.
TSdariofoo
post Jul 30 2012, 12:48 PM

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QUOTE(WyjSwmW @ Jul 30 2012, 10:49 AM)
hi dario,

just a quick question.

Let's say i am the buyer appoint Lawyer A, then seller appoint Lawyer B, then the SPA is drafted by Lawyer A or Lawyer B?
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More often than not it would be the purchaser's solicitors who would prepare the first draft. However, it is not a fixed rule.
TSdariofoo
post Jul 30 2012, 12:53 PM

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QUOTE(kvloh @ Jul 30 2012, 11:16 AM)
Thanks Dario!

Now that the bank of the vendor had released the document. My lawyer told me i need to wait for the document to be stamped by the vendor's solicitor and send to us. After 1 week, however, the lawyer said they haven't received the document. Has they took too long to do it?

Normally how long it takes for the bank to release the money after they receive to documents? 

Thanks again.
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Have they taken too long? What is stated in your SPA? How many days are allocated to the vendor to do so?


QUOTE(kvloh @ Jul 30 2012, 11:16 AM)
Normally how long it takes for the bank to release the money after they receive to documents? 
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Depends on the bank and how urgent it is. Latest would be a week. Fastest would depend on the urgency.
TSdariofoo
post Jul 30 2012, 10:52 PM

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QUOTE(WEELIN1012 @ Jul 30 2012, 05:03 PM)
Hi Dario,

Would like to ask a question,

I sell a house, buyer paid earnest deposit and accordingly to the agent, his loan application is rejected. 

There is an extra condition in the Offer To Purchase Letter, "Subject to loan approval of 90% margin to be obtained within 14 working days.  Earnest deposit will be fully refund provided with 2 banks rejection letter"

It is a lot of times i have been chasing the agent to get the loan rejection letters but i did not receive.  After > 20 working days, i was chasing the agent again, then agent told me buyer collected the letters, but he is oversea.  He can't give me now.  So, i told him i would forfeit 50% of the earnest deposit.

According to the agent, he has advised lawyer that i can't forfeit 50% of the earnest deposit since buyer has the loan rejection letters within the 14 workings day clause and i have to bring this to court if i want to forfeit and bank can act as witness. 

The agent also said if i forfeit, my property will be caveat and cannot be sold until the case is settled.  Is this true? (I mean i cannot forfeit any deposit as long as buyer has the rejection letters within 14 working days even though i did not receive in time)
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The clause is quite clear that you are to retain the 2% deposit until the 2 rejection letters are produced to you. Even if he takes 100 days to show it to you, you have to return it. I see no reason how you can forfeit 50% of the deposit just bacuase there is a delay to produce the letters to you. The 14 day period is to obtain the loan.

No condition was added to the clause to stipulate the time for the purchaser to produce the letters to you. If you had insisted that the letters must be produced within a further 10 days, and had it placed in writing, then you would have a basis to forfeit the whole sum.

On another note, it is not you who has to go to Court to forfeit the deposit. It is the purchaser who has to sue you to refund it to him. This agent is talking utter rubbish.

Regarding the caveat, the purchaser cannot in any way, caveat the property just because you did not return the deposit. There is no legal basis for that and his application would be rejected as well. If he enters one, you can apply to Court to set it aside and also claim damages for losses suffered.

Nw for your case, just refund the deposit to the purchaser once he shows you the rejection letters and move on. The next time around, do insist on that extra clause icon_rolleyes.gif

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Jul 30 2012, 10:52 PM
TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2012, 12:47 PM

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QUOTE(toffeeman @ Jul 31 2012, 07:49 AM)
I am in the midst of buying a shophouse. Agent tells me I need to fork out ernest deposit first before I can view the tenancy agreement. Firstly, is this market practice? Second, what should br my recourse if I find that after the tenancy agreement viewing, I don't want to buy.
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Perhaps the agent is worried that when you view the agreement, you would get the name and address of the vendor (landlord) and approach him directly. What is your purpose of viewing it? Just to confirm the tenancy? If so, point it out to the agent, and ask him to sanitise any sensitive information. It's not a big deal, really. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2012, 12:50 PM

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QUOTE(WEELIN1012 @ Jul 31 2012, 09:03 AM)
Dario,

Thank you very much for your advise.  I would refund 100%. 

One thing i want to make sure the agent did not 'eat' the deposit (deposit is on agent's hand) without seller and buyer knowledge so i told agent if he still not give me the letters, i would forfeit 50% to pressure him to work since i've been chasing him a lot of times but no feedback even the buyer still in the country.
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How are you going to forfeit half when the cheque is in favour of the agent? The agent has a duty to hold the monies as stakeholder and not to disburse it until the conditions are fulfilled. So, if he refund the monies before the 2 letters are produced to you (or if the agent makan the monies himself), you can lodge a complaint against the agent.



QUOTE(WEELIN1012 @ Jul 31 2012, 09:03 AM)
This is the first time i sell house thru agent and heard a lot of not good comments to property agents.
*
As in all professions, there are good and bad apples. Best not to generalise. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2012, 02:11 PM

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QUOTE(stabella @ Jul 30 2012, 06:13 PM)
Yes, is RPGT charged to the sons if they are selling the land to others?
*
Of course, but the calculation of the gains would be:

selling price less price at market value at the time of acquisition via the transfer (price at market value to be determined by LHDN). icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2012, 06:29 PM

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QUOTE(dumeort @ Jul 31 2012, 01:22 PM)
Dariofoo,

Tq very much for the reply for those having problems here. Salute you very much.

Can give some advise for my friend here ?

The Case :-

She already have the loan and serving the loan for 2 years. Within this year time, she had defaulted the payment for 2 months and subsequently wend to 3 months. The bank revised her interest from 4.2 to 9.1%. She went to the bank settled all the outstanding of Rm 12,000.00. When she asked for reduction of interest, the bank told her that she must pay promt payment for 6 months and the interest will revise back to normal.

She asking for my help to get legal advise.

My opinion, it's right to punish or raise the interest rate for non-regular payment, but when the person already get the money and pay ALL THE OUTSTANDING, would it be fair to revise back the interest rate ?

According to her, her monthly payment of RM 3,400 are increase to RM 5,300.00.

The bank is a foreign bank.

My questions :

Is the Foreign Bank have the right for themself in the event the customer defaulted payment, they can charge any interest they want or they have follow the BAFIA act for Non-Prompt customer behaviour ?

The offer letter i looked at indeed have clause 13. EVENTS OF DEFAULT.

The bank clause 13 under offer letter stated :

Notwithstanding your overall obligation to repay all outstanding amounts on demand by the Bank, the Facilities or any part thereof for the time being outstanding and unpaid together with interest thereon and al other monies secured by any security shall immediately become due and payable, and the security in favour of the Bank shall become immediately enforceable and exercisable by the Bank, without prior demand, and the facilities shall be cancelled and no further drawdowns or availability in respect thereof shall be permitted, in any of the following events, irrespective of whether such event is continuing ...
Is the statement above means that in the event i defaulted 3 months and bank can charge me interests rate up to their like ? Or the interest of 9.1% follow some sort of Banking Law ?

My conclusion is, there is a need to punish the customer, but until what extend ? Why the interest is not 6% or 7% ? I see the Bank are more like killing the customer than giving them a chance to something about the non-prompt payment customer.

Can give a little bit 2 cents on this matter ?

Tq very very much.
*
It is not a question of whether it is fair or whether it is right or just or whether it amounts to a punishment - what is important is that both parties entered into a contract encompassing such terms out of their own free will, so it is binding upon both parties. Borrower wanted the loan and executed the agreement. Bank released the monies and now, the borrower can't turn around and dispute the terms of the agreement.

Having said so, the bank can only impose such additional payments if the Loan Agreement authorises them to do so.

Is there another clause in respect of this apart from the one above? That is not all-encompassing. Look for the heading which has ADDITIONAL INTEREST/DEFAULT RATE.
TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2012, 06:46 PM

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QUOTE(naing @ Jul 31 2012, 01:28 PM)
Hi Dario,

I am a foreigner. I and my Malaysian wife bought a house with RM200k a few years ago and put it under my wife name since I am not eligible houses under RM 500k. I am currently paying loan for that house even though my name is not there. I don't have any issue for doing that; however, I am worried about what is going to happen to that house if my wife die suddenly. Is there ways to counter the loss of the house?

Thank you in advance...

Naing
*
Write a will now itself. Best solution. icon_rolleyes.gif

TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2012, 06:47 PM

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QUOTE(WEELIN1012 @ Jul 31 2012, 02:32 PM)
em... good question that i don't have answer.  I just told agent i want to forfeit 50% and will follow-up with his company to 'force' him to follow-up. 

Before i signed the Offer To Purchase, i asked him to scan the cheque for me to confirm name under his company, he did not. 

After only i said want to forfeit and will follow-up with his company, he came back with some feedback as what the question and answer i asked you.

I think i will sms buyer to get his refund if i still cannot get rejection letters on the due date i gave to agent.  I do not want to follow-up a case which consider ended on my side.  (Good thing is i have the buyer's phone number).

=====
 
Agreed every profession has good and bad apples.  I try to be more careful on any case.  It's too sad to say 'difficult to find a person whom you do not know to totally trust on...'
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Do you have his agent registration no and agency registration number? Then you should tell him that if he does not comply with your requests (which are actually quite simple and not complicated at all), then you would file in an official complaint with LPPEH:

http://www.lppeh.gov.my/
TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2012, 08:43 PM

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QUOTE(naing @ Jul 31 2012, 08:34 PM)
But I can't own the house even if it is given to me in the will, right? According to price limit to foreigner.
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As far as I know, that is only for purchases. This would be a bequest by way of a will so it will be a transfer by wa of MOT from the executor to you pursuant to the Probate obtained from Court.

As I'm not 100% sure on this, let me do some research and get back to you. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2012, 09:00 PM

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QUOTE(justincase @ Jul 31 2012, 08:35 PM)
Hi, I would like to check on RPGT.

I understand that if an owner is to dispose his property within 2 years, tax is 10%. From 3rd to 5th year it is 5%. Is this right?

My lawyer advised that it is a flat rate of 10% for the first 5 years.
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You are right. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2012, 10:54 PM

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From the reading of the clause, even if one month overdue, the bank has the right to charge interest.

There's no point grumbling or complaining about it. Basically the borrower wants to obtain a loan from the bank, so the borrower has to oblige and comply with all the terms agreed upon. These terms are quite standard across the board for all banks.

This post has been edited by dariofoo: Jul 31 2012, 10:54 PM

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