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 LYN Christian Fellowship V14 (Group)

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unknown warrior
post Feb 12 2019, 10:45 AM

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QUOTE(prophetjul @ Feb 12 2019, 10:38 AM)
The issue with their 'adoration' borders on worship.

user posted image
YOu shall have no other gods before me.
YOU shall not make any graven image and bow down before them
Conveniently forgotten.
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Medical Science today confirms, a baby does not get blood from the Mother. Life is in the blood.

IMO Jesus can be born Sinless because he's conceived by the HS, Mary's body supplied oxygen and nutrients but not the blood.

in summary: Mary has sin like all of us and thus should not be adored until borderline worship.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 12 2019, 10:49 AM
unknown warrior
post Feb 12 2019, 11:35 AM

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QUOTE(prophetjul @ Feb 12 2019, 11:00 AM)
Yes. I adore my parents. But I do not worship them on a pedestal.

Look at their catechism on their thread OP
You and i are not in church of Christ.  biggrin.gif
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It always has been that way from Catholic POV.


QUOTE(prophetjul @ Feb 12 2019, 11:00 AM)
On Islam, it seems they are acknowledged in the plan of God's salvation
Look at this statement by the pope. Is this God's will?

It adds that “freedom is a right of every person: each individual enjoys the freedom of belief, thought, expression and action” and that “pluralism and the diversity of religions, colour, sex, race and language are willed by God”.

https://www.theaustralian.com.au/news/world...ae4ed35b05ac514
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probably for political reasons. Don't let it affect you.
unknown warrior
post Feb 13 2019, 04:03 PM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 13 2019, 02:28 PM)
It is the angel Gabriel (a messenger from God, thus it is God Himself messagewise), who calls her "full of grace".
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I would agree Mary IS highly favor for a simple reason; she's the one chosen to born Christ, that is all. In that sense, She is highly favored in the context of being chosen compared to all the women in the world. That does not mean she suddenly become sinless. That would contradict the truth and consistency of God's word when scripture clearly tells us, All have sin and fallen short....else it should have recorded, All have sin and fallen short "accept for Mary".

If indeed Mary has the same Fullness of Grace as Christ did, Bible would have recorded of her dispensing miraculous powers of the Lord. But there was none. And if you're going to quote, she gave birth without pain according to rabbinical writings (I wouldn't take that as scripture truth), sorry bro, those are miraculous power of God that came on her, not her performing miracles, that's the difference.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 13 2019, 04:21 PM
unknown warrior
post Feb 14 2019, 08:43 AM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 13 2019, 05:14 PM)
Nobody claimed she has powers of her own, other than that which pleases God to grant miracles through her intercession. See miracle of of the wedding banquet at Cana.

Note that the angel's salutation preceded Mary's acquiescence. Mary was already highly favored. God's grace was not given in time after Mary accepted the angel's word. The Church believes that this grace was given from the very beginning of Mary's life. It is clearly grace because at the time of Mary's conception she could have done nothing to earn it.
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I think you misunderstand what I'm trying say. My contention is that full grace here equates to divine person of Christ being sinless and also being God. Mary is a normal person who has sin. Catholics doctrine see's otherwise.

IN that interpretation we disagree.

*Not arguing when she's given grace.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 14 2019, 09:13 AM
unknown warrior
post Feb 15 2019, 09:20 AM

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QUOTE(yeeck @ Feb 14 2019, 12:33 PM)
Nope, being sinless doesn't mean she is divine. The Church still teaches that she is a created being. No where does the Church teaches that she is equal to Christ or equal to God. I guess most Protestants have issue with the title Mother of God, which is also an issue with Nestorius.
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but problem is, some of your catholic brethren venerate her as divine which I personally feel very uncomfortable. For me I don't see the reason why, neither the need to venerate Mary as how your catholic venerate other saints and angels. I guess we have different perspective of things when it comes to Christianity, however I hope that doesn't cause you to think any less of us who are not catholics.

For me I don't judge whether catholics are saved, you believe in Christ then you're a bro in Christ to me. However if you think we protestant are never a church or a Christian, then that will not bold well for unity as how Christ prayed in the garden of Gethsemane.


One more thing, you are quite wrong in the matter of washing of sin. Baptism in water does not wash away sins. It's the blood of Christ that washes away sin. Because if you insist Baptism does wash away sin, then the thief on the cross wasn't baptized in water, yet Christ permitted him to paradise, you'll have a hard time to argue against that.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 15 2019, 11:06 AM
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 10:09 AM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 26 2019, 10:06 PM)
What's all your take on female taking preaching role and assuming the pastoral office in violation of 1 Tim 2, 3; Titus 1, 1 Cor 11, 14?
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Actually, apostle Paul commended many women in joined work for God's kingdom in the Bible. Therefore it should not be that women are not allowed to teach or lead because if that is true, then the commended women of bible days would have not preached in public where there were Men and Women alike.

On the surface reading may seem to be pointing to women in general but if you read in context, it's very likely referring to husband and wife in the matter of authority.

Did you know; Phoebe, a leader from the church at Cenchreae, ......Paul attaches to her three titles: diakonos meaning a deacon, sister, and prostatis meaning "a woman in a supportive role, patron, benefactor"? A Deacon is someone in authority and also one who teaches.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 27 2019, 10:33 AM
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 11:43 AM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 11:35 AM)
So, woman can be pastor?
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For me I have no issue with it.

All the Women must be silent scripture verse..as I've said refers to Authority between Husband and Wife in context.

if you think about it, what in the world is the phrase child bearing has to do with anything and why mention it in the same chapter?

There is also a debate on the person of "Junia" in the Bible. Scholars could not readily agree whether the person is male or female but modern New Testament scholars agreed is a "she".

Who is Junia? She's an apostle of Christ. What is an apostle and what are the office role? The term "apostle" connotes the highest level of leadership and authority in the early church.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 27 2019, 12:05 PM
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 01:16 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 12:31 PM)
Ic... How do u reconcile your justification with Paul's citing creation order as the reason of prohibition of woman teaching and having authority over men?
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Talking about creation order, citing Adam and Eve, aren't they also considered husband and wife so to speak?
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 02:13 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 02:00 PM)
if 1 tim 2:12-15 is strictly confined to family setting, why is then the immediate preceding verses 'referring to men' refers to corporate worship? How did you arrive to the conclusion that the text requires the reader to depart from a context to another?
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I think family settings starts from verse 11. Verse 8 & 9 would refer to Man and Women in general. It's a bit tricky with the Greek and Hebrew for that matter because the phrase Man can also refer to both Man and Woman.

For example....in the early verse "All those who are in authority", would include women too, yet Bible records the phrase man in verse 1 of the same chapter.


unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 03:59 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 03:24 PM)
Immediately in 1 Tim 3, it says that an overseer should be the 'husband of one wife', and able to manage his own house well, with children in submission. Then comes the verse: 'for if a man does not know how to rule his own house, how will he take care of the church of God?'

Question: Since this is within the context of the local church (It reads without the need to change context since 1 Tim 2), how does one justify the part where the woman is able to 'rule' his own house well (while adhering to 1 Tim 2:11-15), and then proceed to take care of the church of God'?
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Erm, which part is the problem?
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 04:59 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 04:45 PM)
Rule. Manage, take care.
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And...?
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 09:11 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 06:53 PM)
How does a woman 'rule' the home and then shepherd the church of God? Previously you mentioned that the part where the woman prohibition in teaching and having authority over man is only confined in family setting.
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So where is the problem? If she's married then her head authority at home is her husband.

But if she's appointed as a pastor, then she has authority in church.
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 09:29 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 09:17 PM)
how can a wife at home, being ruled by her husband, lead the church?
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Think of it this way, being a pastor is a calling and God appointed. It's a matter of divine calling.

I think you confuse, just because the husband is the head in the house, that does not makes him automatically the head in the church, unless He is called too to be a pastor then He would be head in the church.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 27 2019, 09:34 PM
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 09:38 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 09:36 PM)
I refer to Paul's express injunction against woman teaching and having authority over man (1 Tim 2:12). So, to answer your question, I don't think the Scripture approves such.
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Read the foot note. The word women there refers to ...or Wife.


QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 09:37 PM)
Will God issue a call contradicting with His written Word?
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Of course not.
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 09:47 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 09:44 PM)
We'll move to 1 Cor 11, on the natural order that God has instituted:

Paul wrote:

head of every man is Christ;
head of woman is man;
head of Christ is God

Since there's no argument that the head of Christ is God, and the head of man is Christ, so also is head of woman is man.

How can a woman, married or unmarried, exercise pastoral gift when there is man present?

Exercising pastoral gift includes preaching God's authoritative word and prays pastoral prayer. Can she, being a woman, represent the church and pray to God in the pastoral sense?
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again, read the foot note


Or of the wife is her husband
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 09:58 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 09:50 PM)
It's in NIV

And in the Greek, the word = guné which can refer to Woman or wife.

Intepretation leans more towards the wife, why? As I've said, why put in the word "childbearing" in the same chapter?

Child bearing = Wife?

No?

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 27 2019, 10:07 PM
unknown warrior
post Feb 27 2019, 10:04 PM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 09:36 PM)

The Scripture does, however, approves and in fact encourages woman to teach other women, and children. Also, the Scripture does not hinder woman to exercise gift of encouragement and discernment as in the case of Aquila and Priscilla in correcting Apollo.
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Isn't correcting also a teaching?
unknown warrior
post Feb 28 2019, 08:25 AM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 11:04 PM)
Good observation. Does Aquila and Priscilla correcting Apollo establish the norm that woman can correct and teach man, and thereby ignore Paul's injunction in 1 Tim 2?
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What Aquila and Priscilla did in correcting Apollo should tell you, 1 Tim 2 is not referring to women in general but wives to their husband, I've even given you the example of Juniaa who was elected an apostle carrying the highest authority in early church. What more do you want if these doesn't explain?

QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 27 2019, 11:06 PM)
Good observation. Does it mean that woman who are not married and bearing child couldn't be saved as per 1 Tim 2:15?
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Which is exactly the point; IF it points to all Women, that ALL Women must be quiet and cannot teach a Man, then pray tell me what has child bearing has to do with every women, all they are married?
I submit to you, the context leads more plausible of Wives to their husband. Of course not every wife will bear a child BUT you and I know, child bearing is sanction under marriage.

This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Feb 28 2019, 08:40 AM
unknown warrior
post Mar 1 2019, 08:33 AM

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QUOTE(alexkos @ Feb 28 2019, 06:41 PM)
I reread 1 Tim 2 according to your interpretation. I try to substitute all 'women' with wives....

starting verse 9....

from general men to wives....

several activities were mentioned

verse 9 - adorn - modest apparel - propriety and moderation, not with braided hair or gold or pearls or costly clothing

verse 10 - do good works

verse 11 - learn in silence with all submission

verse 12- do not teach and have authority over a man, but to be in silence

verse 13-15- creation order explanation by Paul
So, can i safely deduce that activities from verse 9 to 12 are only applied the context of the family?

But, whenever it comes to congregational activities, the wives are relieved of the injunction in v12, so also verse 9-11?
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Haih Bro....I think I've explain enough, not here to force you to believe my interpretation. It's not even my interpretation, it's what the Bible records. The phrase child bearing is there, there are no insignificant details in the Bible, every word has a purpose and context.

But IMO when it comes congregational activities, sure why not, woman pastor allowed to teach the congregation. If in the days of Paul, women are doing that, what's the difference today? You seem to purposely ignore what you yourself just said in the examples of Aquila and Priscilla. Sometime I just don't understand you.

Peace yo. icon_rolleyes.gif
unknown warrior
post Mar 1 2019, 09:36 AM

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The prayer of a righteous person avails much!


James 5:16 (NIV) - Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each other so that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous person is powerful and effective.

Good Day dear believers,

I'm going share something that will help you in your prayers. We all know James 5:16. but what is a righteous person?
Under the New Covenant, righteousness is not the righteousness of doing right. I repeat, a believer becomes righteous not because he has done righteous things.

Galatians 2:21 (New Living Translation)
I do not treat the grace of God as meaningless. For if keeping the law could make us right with God, then there was no need for Christ to die.

It is a righteousness of Faith.

Romans 3:22 (NIV) - This righteousness is given through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile,

When you understand that you are righteous by faith and that you are this same righteous person that James 5:16 talks (righteous by faith) about, your prayers will avail much. The devil will have a hard time resisting you? Is it that simple? Yes. In Jesus Name, may this be revealed to you.

I pray this will revolutionize your life. Do not be deceive to think only high level priest or pastor have effective prayers. You have as much influence in pray to God as they do.

God Bless.


This post has been edited by unknown warrior: Mar 1 2019, 02:53 PM

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