Feb 20 2014, 07:50 AM
QUOTE(wongmunkeong @ Feb 18 2014, 08:52 AM)
no expert here yar, just curious.
When U mentioned "30%mutual funds & 60%stocks"
U meant 30% bond funds or equity funds?
IF U meant equity funds.. er. then one would be 90% into equities (30% +60% stocks)?
Very aggressive indeed.
that 10% in FD - what if market collapses within 6 mths or 1 year.
how would one take advantage with monthly i keep my Fixed Income (FD or Bonds IMHO) at only 10% monthly?
Based on Kaiserwulf's "game" criteria:
Say you have RM 7000/mth to invest.
How would you allocate your investment(s) and in what frequency?
Other info: You have house loan at BLR-2.4% and car loan at 2% p.a. Your family is well provided and don't ask you for anything else.
My personal additional assumptions: mortgage = FlexiMortgage +do NOT have EPF a/c +not a biz owner.
IF biz owner, i'd suggest own biz be part of "Equities excluding REITs or Properties" if my biz is in trading/services
I would:
A. $7K - channel 50% to build emergency buffer, 50% for investments.
Once emergency buffer hits 6 months expenses or 8% of my net worth (keep topping up bit by bit if it is too far from 8%), 100% will be channeled to investments
B. Investments
1. Asset allocation of:
a. Fixed Income: 1/3 - to hold dry powder for FEAR / major value buys
b. Equities excluding REITs or Properties: 1/3
c. Real Equities (REITs & Properties): 1/3
2. Sub-asset allocation:
a. Fixed Income:
11.11% to local cash equivalent in FlexiMortgage
22.22% to local developed bond funds. Heck if BLR goes up, may even move this portion into FlexiMortgage
Note: since FI is just to hold dry powder for usage, local bond funds & FD/MM is good enough. Dont want to complicate things
b. Equities excluding REITs or Properties:
20% in Developed Markets ETF like URTH (including US) or a mix of ETFs like VEA (dev mkt exUS) +SPY (US)
13.33% in Emerging Markets ETF like a EEM or mix of CIMBA40 (ASEAN) +CIMBC25 (China)
yes yes CIMBA40 has SG in it, which is a Developed Mkt.
Again - point is not too nitty gritty, "close enough"
c. Real Equities (REITs & Properties):
REITs: Based on value hunting in SGX (0% tax on dividends for individuals) & MY (local expertise mar)
Criteria: net DY% >=7%pa & Price/NAP <=0.9 & D/E or leverage <=33% (buy for DY%)
OR Price/NAP <0.7 & D/E or leverage <=33% (buy depressed price for flipping)
Properties: Based on value hunting similar to above reasoning.
3. Execution:
With the Asset & sub-asset allocation done +specific vehicles identified, i would execute once every 4 or 6 MONTHS.
Why 4 or 6 months?
a. More cost effective purchases of ETFs, yet "timely" enough as done at least 2 to 3 times a year
b. Forces a review of Asset Allocation & sub-allocation at least 2 to 3 times a year
If AFTER the new injection of funds, any of the Equity classes or sub-classes varies 20% or more, FORCE a rebalance.
eg. 20% is for Developed markets, thus
if Developed markets hit <=16% force buy to hit back 20%
if Developed markets hit >=24% force sell to hit back 20%
If AFTER the new injection of funds, both Equity classes varies 40% or more, FORCE a VALUE BUY - spend down Fixed Income % down to 10% and bump up Equities & Real Equities equally.
IF DONE - do not buy into Equities anymore until Fixed Income rebuilt back to approximately 33.33%, then Execute as usual
Why?
Approximately every year, about 10%+/- fall is expected
Once in 4 to 6 years, about 20%+/- fall is expected
Once in 8 to x years, major falls is expected (think 1997-1998 ASEAN currency crisis, 2008 credit crunch)
Statistics from statistical & equities company - sorry, can't recall which/where
Whew.. that's it.
All logical criticisms & suggested solutions are welcomed. The above is actually part of my "possible" Trust's asset management rules
Just a thought
one quick question to u bro WMK , When U mentioned "30%mutual funds & 60%stocks"
U meant 30% bond funds or equity funds?
IF U meant equity funds.. er. then one would be 90% into equities (30% +60% stocks)?
Very aggressive indeed.
that 10% in FD - what if market collapses within 6 mths or 1 year.
how would one take advantage with monthly i keep my Fixed Income (FD or Bonds IMHO) at only 10% monthly?
Based on Kaiserwulf's "game" criteria:
Say you have RM 7000/mth to invest.
How would you allocate your investment(s) and in what frequency?
Other info: You have house loan at BLR-2.4% and car loan at 2% p.a. Your family is well provided and don't ask you for anything else.
My personal additional assumptions: mortgage = FlexiMortgage +do NOT have EPF a/c +not a biz owner.
IF biz owner, i'd suggest own biz be part of "Equities excluding REITs or Properties" if my biz is in trading/services
I would:
A. $7K - channel 50% to build emergency buffer, 50% for investments.
Once emergency buffer hits 6 months expenses or 8% of my net worth (keep topping up bit by bit if it is too far from 8%), 100% will be channeled to investments
B. Investments
1. Asset allocation of:
a. Fixed Income: 1/3 - to hold dry powder for FEAR / major value buys
b. Equities excluding REITs or Properties: 1/3
c. Real Equities (REITs & Properties): 1/3
2. Sub-asset allocation:
a. Fixed Income:
11.11% to local cash equivalent in FlexiMortgage
22.22% to local developed bond funds. Heck if BLR goes up, may even move this portion into FlexiMortgage
Note: since FI is just to hold dry powder for usage, local bond funds & FD/MM is good enough. Dont want to complicate things
b. Equities excluding REITs or Properties:
20% in Developed Markets ETF like URTH (including US) or a mix of ETFs like VEA (dev mkt exUS) +SPY (US)
13.33% in Emerging Markets ETF like a EEM or mix of CIMBA40 (ASEAN) +CIMBC25 (China)
yes yes CIMBA40 has SG in it, which is a Developed Mkt.
Again - point is not too nitty gritty, "close enough"
c. Real Equities (REITs & Properties):
REITs: Based on value hunting in SGX (0% tax on dividends for individuals) & MY (local expertise mar)
Criteria: net DY% >=7%pa & Price/NAP <=0.9 & D/E or leverage <=33% (buy for DY%)
OR Price/NAP <0.7 & D/E or leverage <=33% (buy depressed price for flipping)
Properties: Based on value hunting similar to above reasoning.
3. Execution:
With the Asset & sub-asset allocation done +specific vehicles identified, i would execute once every 4 or 6 MONTHS.
Why 4 or 6 months?
a. More cost effective purchases of ETFs, yet "timely" enough as done at least 2 to 3 times a year
b. Forces a review of Asset Allocation & sub-allocation at least 2 to 3 times a year
If AFTER the new injection of funds, any of the Equity classes or sub-classes varies 20% or more, FORCE a rebalance.
eg. 20% is for Developed markets, thus
if Developed markets hit <=16% force buy to hit back 20%
if Developed markets hit >=24% force sell to hit back 20%
If AFTER the new injection of funds, both Equity classes varies 40% or more, FORCE a VALUE BUY - spend down Fixed Income % down to 10% and bump up Equities & Real Equities equally.
IF DONE - do not buy into Equities anymore until Fixed Income rebuilt back to approximately 33.33%, then Execute as usual
Why?
Approximately every year, about 10%+/- fall is expected
Once in 4 to 6 years, about 20%+/- fall is expected
Once in 8 to x years, major falls is expected (think 1997-1998 ASEAN currency crisis, 2008 credit crunch)
Statistics from statistical & equities company - sorry, can't recall which/where
Whew.. that's it.
All logical criticisms & suggested solutions are welcomed. The above is actually part of my "possible" Trust's asset management rules
Just a thought
"Once emergency buffer hits 6 months expenses or 8% of my net worth"
Why 8 % and not other figure like 5 / 6 %of the net worth ? i thought normally is just 3-6 months of expenses. Care to elaborate more? Use percentage of networth as a guideline to build up emergency buffer is something new to me.
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