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 Lawyer's Corner v2, One-stop centre for any legal queries

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TSdariofoo
post Apr 18 2012, 11:17 AM

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QUOTE(wongck @ Apr 17 2012, 04:00 PM)
Hi Dario,

I need advise here. I am buying a 2nd hand condo and all the S&P has been signed.

Because the owner has not fully settle his loan with his private financier, so my Bank has issue the 1st payment to his vendor lawyer to settle the remaining amount. Is already been 2 weeks time since the payment release, until now the housing grant is still not yet release by his financier.

I have check with my lawyer regarding on this, and she said only waiting for the vendor lawyer and vendor lawyer is waiting the financier to release the documents.

As today I already start paying the interet to Bank. So what can I do now? I feel very helpless on this, seems like the owner is delaying the thing. How long can they delay on this thing? Is there anything I can do?

Please advise.
*
Same question posed before and answer at post #855 at the last page.

2 weeks is not a long delay at all. Give it a bit of time. The bank needs time to find the docs too, chief. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Apr 18 2012, 11:18 AM

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QUOTE(feizaiII @ Apr 18 2012, 08:28 AM)
Dear Dario kor..

What if as a seller, lawyer had not inform and settle all things after the deadline mentioned in letter? Lawyer will count the late interest?

Current status, seller loan been settled, lawyer just receive security document from seller bank.
*
If seller delays, the completion date will be extended for the benefit of the buyer. There's no late interest. Seller only will have to pay late interest if the purchase price has been paid in full and there is a delay on the part of the seller to hand over the keys. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Apr 18 2012, 04:20 PM

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QUOTE(feizaiII @ Apr 18 2012, 02:08 PM)
Thx dario.

Completion date is 15 April. Buyer had been paid in full and lawyer is settling remaining documents. Have not call to hand over keys yet. Is there any late interest charge on buyer or seller side?
*
What do you mean Buyer had been paid in full? Did you mean Seller? hmm.gif
TSdariofoo
post Apr 18 2012, 04:24 PM

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QUOTE(it.fusion @ Apr 18 2012, 04:06 PM)
my question is, will the MOT process will take longer once the title are out ?
and first part of the MOT is to submit my name for the title name transfer in Land Dept rite ? s&p lawyer told me at land dept, it would take months before this is done.. i am kinda puzzled now...

and once the title transfered to me, and afterthat the bank will apply for their part in land dept ?  then only the bank will release the money to vendor ?

kindly guide sir !
*
I've already answered to you in detail on the procedure in my post dated 28th Feb 2012. With all due respect, why are you repeating the same questions again? rclxub.gif
TSdariofoo
post Apr 19 2012, 06:12 PM

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QUOTE(it.fusion @ Apr 18 2012, 04:55 PM)
Yep, saw the post dariofoo, but that was i suppose bank to bank title redemption ? and it was now the vendor agree to pay by herself the outstanding balance amount to her bank.. it doesnt really make any difference.. isit ?
*
No,it doesn't.

QUOTE(it.fusion @ Apr 18 2012, 04:55 PM)
And i am blur on the 'periods' that may lock the overall process down...like in this case land office... does they really stretch their processing time ?
*
I don't understand what you mean. Sorry.


QUOTE(it.fusion @ Apr 18 2012, 04:55 PM)
and as your below reply no.10 .... it seems only loan lawyer will process at land office, and not SPA lawyer ?
*
Loan lawyer, unless purchaser is buying in cash.
TSdariofoo
post Apr 19 2012, 06:13 PM

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QUOTE(feizaiII @ Apr 19 2012, 01:16 AM)
My fault to confusing you!

- Seller loan account had been settled now.
- Completion date is over now.
- Lawyer had not settle all documents hence no call to handover key yet.
- As a buyer, do I get late penalty interest charge because it over the completion date.
*
Thanks for the clarification.

No,bro. As buyer, the completion date will be extended in your favour if there is a delay by the seller.

The completion date will be determined again at the end when keys are handed over. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Apr 19 2012, 06:17 PM

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QUOTE(Conroe @ Apr 19 2012, 01:42 AM)
Hi,i knew that my issue not related to property but still i need some insight.I am a registered physically disabled person.I need a legal/law advise regarding this.Any lawyers or person gone through this situation before,will be much appreciated.

At first i've got a sinus with puss discharge at supra pubic area for a month plus.Did a sonogram diagnostic last week followed by a surgery to remove a 2cmx1.5cm cyst/puss collection at the mentioned part,they removed around 2cmx1cm and 3cm deep flesh to access the cyst/puss collection.Few days after the surgery,i still see puss accumulating at the surgery wound's underneath.The condition was still same for a week therefore i decided to consult another general surgeon from a medical centre,after checking the wound he said the cyst/puss collection was not exactly removed because it's situated just below the surgery part and not directly on the surgery part.He made a small incision below the surgery part and there it goes,puss was rushing out,i mean alot of puss.After clean 'em all he advise me to do daily dressing.I asked for a letter on what he did and he provide it.So now,i am really frustrated with the surgeons etc that performed the surgery without removing the actual part they should remove.I have some photos of the wound before and after,also how much puss accumulated after the surgery.I would like to know,legally what are my options and percentage if i could sue them.
Thanks in advance.
*
Any questions relating to any topic in law are welcomed. A breath of fresh air,really. smile.gif

When it comes to medical negligence, the question which has to be determined is - what losses did you suffer? In other words, what aggravated injury or physical harm occured to you as a result of the alleged negligence? Only then can the damages be quantified.
TSdariofoo
post Apr 19 2012, 06:18 PM

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QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Apr 19 2012, 09:05 AM)
Hi Dario,

I know this question might not be related to lawyer's corner, but I'm not sure where to post this question in the forum.

So my question is this; can I apply for Assessments exemption if I am not planning to dwell inside my new house for more than 1 year?
Can I appeal this to Majlis Perbandaran?

What are the procedures? What sort of documents that I need to prove to them?

Thanks in advance.
*
Sorry but I've never heard of this exemption before.
TSdariofoo
post Apr 19 2012, 06:19 PM

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QUOTE(*NaRaYa* @ Apr 19 2012, 01:22 PM)
hello  biggrin.gif

My mum selling her office lot and at the same time, i am buying a house.

Questions:

1- Should we use the same lawyer ? any conflict ? save cost ?

2- SPA agreement fees , Legal fees is pay by seller or buyer ? or share ??
Thanks  notworthy.gif
*
1. Why not? No conflict. Save costs depends on the bill but I doubt if there's any savings because they are two separate properties.
2. You pay for your own lawyer which you appointed. Simple as that. No sharing.
TSdariofoo
post Apr 19 2012, 06:21 PM

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QUOTE(windwalker @ Apr 19 2012, 05:12 PM)
Hi Guys,

I book an property after paying 3% booking fee and this sales agent's recommended lawyer called me. He mentioned that he would prepared SnP and get me to sign it in few days. He told upon signing it I need to issue a cheque to the vendor(owner) and not the solicitor firm? He said this would speed up the process.
Is this safe to do so?
*
This depends on the instruction and choice of the vendor. And it will be reflected in the SPA. Check the finalised SPA before proceeding. If it is stated that it is to be paid directly to vendor then so be it. Of course it is safe as the SPA itself provides it. This means the vendor agreed to it.

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TSdariofoo
post Apr 20 2012, 03:47 PM

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QUOTE(TkPerak @ Apr 19 2012, 09:01 PM)
Hi Dario,

I come back for further questions and I hope you still remember my case with regard to LoI. I engaged a lawyer to deal with the seller (developer) and already sent few reminders to the seller as well as seller lawyer to request for progress of status of term(land conversion) in LoI. However the seller just  did not want to respond to the reminder and I really stuck with the situation here to further to S&P.
When I asked my lawyer to file suit against the seller, my lawyer said it is still pre mature stage to do that. So how long I have to wait because there was no time frame set for the term of land conversion in LoI. If the seller really want to delay the term in LoI because of land price is already increased so much last 2-3years (LoI already passed 2years). What can I do now to enable me to expedite the process to complete the deal?

Thank you.
Regards,
*
Why does your lawyer say that is is premature at this stage? He must know more facts of the case than what you have stated here. hmm.gif
TSdariofoo
post Apr 20 2012, 03:49 PM

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QUOTE(feizaiII @ Apr 20 2012, 09:40 AM)
Delay from seller bank consider as seller fault?
*
Yes
TSdariofoo
post Apr 20 2012, 04:04 PM

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dreamadream:
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1. Normally it is upfront. See what your lawyer says.

2. You can pay it now itself (directly in favour of the vendor's solicitor's client's account as stakeholder) but you can pay at any time with the last minute would be before your financier releases the loan sum. They must be assured that the differential sum has been deposited with the vendor's lawyers (or with your lawyers if the vendor is not represented) as stakeholder. Without it, the final release will not take place and things will be at a standstill.

3, Procedure:

1. SPA signed and stamped. In the interim, a caveat ought to be lodged over the property by you (or if you think you want to save costs since the bank will be lodging a caveat as well, then you just wait for the bank to do so via the loan lawyer).
2. You apply for a loan and next step would be to execute the loan documents.
3. Loan lawyer writes to vendor or his lawyer to obtain his confirmation and undertakings.
4. Bank gives an undertaking to the vendor to release the loan.This is for unencumbered properties.
5. Vendor hands over original strata title and other original documents to your lawyer.
6. In the interim, MOT can be sent for adjudication.
7. LHDN will issue notice of stamp duty to be paid upon MOT.
8. Your lawyer pays stamp duty and gets MOT stamped.
9. Your lawyer presents MOT, withdrawal of private caveats forms, and charge in favour of your bank at the land office.
10. With presentation receipt and other ori docs, your loan lawyer advises bank to release final drawdown.
11. Bank release cheque for drawdown of entire loan sum (85%).
12. Your lawyer hands it to vendor or his lawyer, and keys are exchanged together with apportionment of outgoings - end of transaction.

Important documents? SPA, loan agreement and other agreements plus correspondence.

4. Keys has nothing to do with the documents to show ownership. The keys are from vendor. The docs are to be compiled and handed over to you by your lawyer. That can be done later. Copy of geran/title is proof of ownership.

5. Haha. No comments.
TSdariofoo
post Apr 21 2012, 01:37 AM

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alan44:
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1. No it is not illegal but there is a way to go about it.

2. No. Only one SPA is needed. It will state the higher price but there will be a side letter whereby the vendor agrees to give you a discount of RM25,000.00 and a letter of authorisation to his lawyer to automatically deduct it from the balance purchase price and hand it to you.

3. Not only too late, but there's no point as there's nothing in black and white. Your lawyer would also not want to get involved in this.

4. What's the point of hiring another lawyer? Plus, there can only be one SPA for a transaction. Another SPA has no legal effect whatsoever. Assuming even that even if it is valid, there's no way the vendor is going to sign another SPA.

5. Without anything in black and white, it's as good as your word against his. Having friends as witnesses does not help either it does not lend your case any credence. It is almost impossible to prove your case against him. Probably you can lodge a police report for cheating against the vendor but once again, without anything in writing, it is highly unlikely that the police will act on it. They would most probably say it is a civil matter and advise you to appoint a lawyer. Even if you appoint a lawyer and intend to sue the vendor, it would be difficult to prove your case without anything in writing at all.

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TSdariofoo
post Apr 21 2012, 02:14 AM

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QUOTE(UFO-ET @ Apr 21 2012, 01:52 AM)
thumbup.gif
Must get the agent to help, really misconduct!
*
If the agent really wanted to help, he ought to have advised the purchaser to appoint his own lawyer to protect his interests in light of this 'special arrangement'. Don't be surprised if the agent is part of the whole scheme of things. I don't think the agent would want to get involved in this.
TSdariofoo
post Apr 23 2012, 12:28 PM

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QUOTE(Conroe @ Apr 21 2012, 03:20 AM)
I would like to know,legally what are my options and/percentage if i could sue them and the damages could be quantified.
*
Medical negligence is such that compensation claimed for must be as a direct consequence from the negligent act complained of. Thereafter, the loss arising from the said consequence must be determined. After that, the loss would be quantified based on the nature and severity of it. For example, as a result of the doctor's negligence, the patient's foot from the ankle downwards had to be amputated. As such, the loss of usage of the said foot can be quantified. So can loss of income (assuming that he can no longer perform his current job due to the disability, eg he's a driver). So his salary and allowances would calculated until his date of retirement and reimbursed to him.

In your case, while you have stated the facts of the case, you have not stated much of your loss apart from "i've only got disappointment,frustration and a deep useless surgery wound that might takes more than a month to fully healed/recovered.". Correct me if I'm wrong.

I cannot advise you as to the extent and severity of your loss as I'm not a medical expert. As such, I would advise you to obtain the services of a specialist, in this case, a gynaecologist, who can study and analyse the treatment performed on you and give a professional medical opinion if there was negligence on the part of the doctor in attendance.

The specialist can also tell you if there are any long term effects to your condition. That would help determine more losses to amplify your claim.

From there, you ask for recommendations for a lawyer who specialises in medical negligence (patient/plaintiff). There are firms who specialise on this side of the fence. Don't make a mistake of approaching one who acts for doctors alone (defendant lawyers - mostly on panels of insurance companies).

That specialist must also be willing to attend at Court to be a witness on your side. You must make sure of that. No point of he prepares the report but refuses to attend in Court. That would make the report of little weight and effect in the eyes of the Court. So one of the first questions you need to ask him is whether he is prepared to do so.

The thing about medical negligence in Malaysia is that some specialists/experts do not want to get involved in the trial, as the belief is that, "Today I'm a witness against a fellow practitioner as a defendant, tomorrow I may be a defendant and a fellow practitioner can be a witness against me to my detriment." As such, experts from overseas have to appointed. These costs money, and you would have to fork out the costs of it.

As such, before you embark on this, you need to consider yourself whether it would be fruitful in the end as you would not want to spend a lot on costs and not be able to recover enough after the trial to cover costs as well as legal fees.

Good luck

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TSdariofoo
post Apr 23 2012, 12:37 PM

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QUOTE(bencsn @ Apr 21 2012, 12:04 PM)
.is this a stadard & legal practice to leave the maintenance fees portion empty in the SPA?
*
Yes it is common to leave it empty.

Your agreement should be similar to this sample Schedule H SPA:

Attached File  Schedule_H.pdf ( 61.91k ) Number of downloads: 37


As you can see, the exact amount is never stated. It will be stated in the Form which will only be given to owners after the property is completed when they collect the deposit for maintenance.

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TSdariofoo
post Apr 23 2012, 12:38 PM

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QUOTE(gatsby12 @ Apr 21 2012, 08:50 PM)
if a bumi buy a non- bumi lot is it it will auto change into a bumi lot?
*
Not necessarily. Check with the developer if the particular unit has been listed as a bumi lot. Best way to get a definite answer. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Apr 23 2012, 12:41 PM

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QUOTE(it.fusion @ Apr 22 2012, 01:53 PM)
QUOTE(it.fusion @ Apr 18 2012, 04:55 PM)

And i am blur on the 'periods' that may lock the overall process down...like in this case land office... does they really stretch their processing time ?
What i mean was that lets say title had been released by vendor's bank and SPA lawyer pays MOT stamp duty already... then the land office process ( changing title name to me / bank ) would it take long or very long time ? and does the overall process only considered complete once the title had been changed at land office ? or just by MOT stamping ?

thanks for the valuable info dariofoo... cheers
*
About land office, it depends on your luck. Sometimes they're efficient, sometime they're not. But they have improved, I have to say. So to say for sure if they would delay, I don't dare to do so. smile.gif

Overall process is complete once the MOT has been presented for registration and the charge registered as well. Only then would the bank release the balance loan sum. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Apr 23 2012, 12:45 PM

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QUOTE(Twilight Prophet @ Apr 22 2012, 08:46 PM)
For nearly 3 weeks, there was no response from Bank A. A few days ago, my lawyer send a stronger reminder to Bank A, saying the loan will not be disbursed unless the documents are handed over and that Bank A will be held responsible if there is a delay.
Please advise what would happen if Bank A fails to produce the security documents:
1. Can Bank P withdraw the loan and demand from me immediate payment for the part of the loan disbursed to Bank A?.
2. What actions can and should I take?

FYI the "missing" documents are the original copies of the power of attorney/loan agreement between the previous owner and her bank. Are these documents essential?
*
1. Bank P won't do that. They would insist on the documents to be handed over to them, irregardless of the delay.
2. Gotta get the lawyer to keep on pushing Bank A. Perhaps even write a complaint letter to Bank Negara if it persists.

The agreements are essential but if it is confirmed that it is lost, perhaps a certified true copy or a duplicate copy, duly stamped, would suffice (depends on whether Bank P would be satisfied with same). The most important document is the Deed of Assignment, actually. That shows the trail of ownership.

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