QUOTE(wongmunkeong @ Feb 14 2012, 06:58 PM)
If Muslim, they have this concept of 'harta sepencarian' which is similar to the concept in civil cases. power is given to the Syariah Court to determine the division, but more often than not the Court will order an equal split. But the burden would be on the wife to prove that the assets were procured during the subsistence of the marriage. QUOTE(wongmunkeong @ Feb 14 2012, 06:58 PM)
In addition, from what i understand, whether non-muslim or muslim, if he/she can prove that certain assets were acquired BEFORE marriage, then those assets are NOT part of the 50% split right?
Yes, if acquired before marriage, then it would not be considered for purposes of division.If I may add a bit - in reality, more often than not, parties arrive at a settlement with regard to division of assets. Perhaps the wife will get to keep the matrimonial home. The husband would continue paying the monthly instalments. The husband will keep the main car, and the second car will go to the wife. Custody will be with the mother, with visitation rights by the father. Father has to pay maintenance (or alimony, as they call it in the US) to the wife (quantum depends on whether wife is working or otherwise) and kids. Husband has to pay insurance and pay all education expenses until kids turn 18. More often than not, these are common terms agreed upon in a divorce.
Only the ugly separations - probably caused by abusive or adulterous spouses - which end up in bitter, long, drawn-out court battles filled with lies, baseless and exaggerated accusations and allegations, scheming conniving lawyers who spit and spew venomous words in their submissions on behalf of their beleaguered clients and a poor judge in the middle scratching his/her head wondering how to decide as to which party is a better liar (as opposed to which party is telling the truth!)
Feb 15 2012, 12:40 AM
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