QUOTE(dariofoo @ Aug 5 2012, 05:15 PM)
If the time given has lapsed, you can opt to repudiate the agreement by giving notice in writing to the other side. I'm sure that would have been provided for in your SPA. Look at it and see how the procedure is. Once you give notice in writing and follow the procedures as per the SPA, there is no way for the SPA to proceed any further. As such, the issue of the transaction "accidently" proceeding does not arise at all.
If you do not give notice in writing to repudiate, the other side may assume that you have impliedly consented to an extension of time (subject to whether there is a non-waiver clause in your SPA). You would then later be estopped from asserting on your rights and argue that it has lapsed.

Thank you so much, Dario. I have given them notice by writing. The SPA should be terminated already. Anyway, just for knowledge and curiosity sake, assuming I did not give them notice in writing to terminate and they have proceeded on the assumption of implied consent, shouldn't the process hit a brick wall sooner or later? I assume, at some stage, any one of the lawyers or the banks would need to see a written agreement that the SPA timeline has been extended, right? Otherwise, how can the whole legal process be completed with an "expired" SPA?If you do not give notice in writing to repudiate, the other side may assume that you have impliedly consented to an extension of time (subject to whether there is a non-waiver clause in your SPA). You would then later be estopped from asserting on your rights and argue that it has lapsed.
Aug 5 2012, 10:57 PM

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