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TSdariofoo
post Feb 28 2011, 03:55 PM

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QUOTE(bluehyppo @ Feb 28 2011, 03:07 PM)
Hello Dario,
Thank you very much for the prompt reply. You are correct; the vendor is not represented by his own lawyer.
After some back-and-forth between the lawyer and agent, the vendor agreed to travel from Terengganu to PJ to sign the SPA.

Appreciate your advice, thank you again
*
That's very obliging of the vendor. That ought to be the correct way of doing things. nod.gif

All the best icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Feb 28 2011, 03:57 PM

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QUOTE(cngi @ Feb 28 2011, 03:31 PM)
Dear Dario,

Normally how long time will takes for developer sign on SPA and revert back to lawyer for stamping at LDHN office?

Thanks
*
3-5 working days at the earliest nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Mar 2 2011, 02:10 PM

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QUOTE(Isaclim @ Mar 1 2011, 07:58 PM)
Hi,

Finally i get a called from the law firm. The lawyer's staff(She) mentioned that, the start count date for 3 months is when received 'Disclaimer Letter' from the master chargee. She say, get this letter very late which is 29/12/2010, the master chargee(CIMB) is from Kuantan.  rclxub.gif

My question is, does the Date of fulfillment of Condition Precedent is include the master chargee Disclaimer letter ?

I had read through SPA again regarding this clause 'Date of fulfillment of Condition Precedent' but i not sure does this clause really got mention regarding to include the master chargee's Disclaimer letter or not.

if needed, i can copy paste the clause, if u can help me this.

Thank you very much
*
Paste it here and i'll take a look at it for you. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Mar 2 2011, 02:25 PM

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QUOTE(baharinsav62 @ Mar 2 2011, 08:39 AM)
Dear dariofoo,

I would like to seek your advice on the issue of RPGT for the sale of my wife's house.

We (my wife and I) bought a terraced house in October 1999 for RM 156k, with both our names as joint owners in the SPA and in the land title. The housing loan was fully settled in 2006 and subsequently, in June 2007, I transferred my share of the house to my wife making her the sole owner and this was recorded in the land title. The transfer was done on a "dasar kasih sayang" (love and care basis) with no monetary transaction.

As we will be moving to another house middle of this year, she is selling her house and have secured a buyer for RM 260k. The buyer's lawyer is preparing the SPA and I estimate that it can be signed latest by end of March 2011.

Will the sale of my wife's house be subject to RPGT since she took full ownership of it in June 2007, which is less than 5 years but it was transferred to her without any monetary consideration on the basis of love and care?

Really appreciate your advice here and a thousand thanks for your valuable time in replying.
*
Salam,bro baharin. Good to see you here again.

I went like this after reading your post -> sweat.gif

Basically there's two ways to go about it - the lurus bendul way or the proposed-crooked-bridge-from-JB-to-S'pore way.

Lurus bendul way:

1. Fill up Form CKHT 3 - you declare that you have owned half-share of the property for more than 5 years;
2. Fill up two copies of Form CKHT 1A - in one you declare that you own half-share for more than 5 years. On the other you declare that you own the property for less than 5 years, ie since 2007.
3. Submit the original S&P - from 1999, and the MOT form from 2007 as evidence.
4. You pay RPGT for the half-share.

the proposed-crooked-bridge-from-JB-to-S'pore way.

1. You fill up Form CKHT3 - declare that you own the property for more than 5 years.
2. Fill up one copy of Form CKHT 1A - declare that you own the property for more than 5 years
3. Submit the original S&P - from 1999. That's it.
4. You are thus exempted from RPGT

Me being the lurus bendul that I am would go for option 1. nod.gif

PS: Reference to you technically means you wife. Sorry smile.gif
TSdariofoo
post Mar 2 2011, 02:30 PM

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QUOTE(jessy123 @ Mar 1 2011, 06:25 PM)
i suggest that your friend should write to them officially and give them a deadline to repair it - otherwise tell them you will repair it yourself and send them the bill  (offset against maintenance fee)...ya also tell your friend to inform them that he /she will bill them for the damage to the furniture, flooring, repainting wall etc or whatever caused by the leak..take pictures to keep as proof...
*
Offset against maintenance fee? What is your authority on this? Is it stated anyway in the agreement that you can do it? What is the legal basis for your advice?

Please elaborate.

QUOTE(mywii @ Mar 1 2011, 08:33 PM)
Thanks for d advice .  Legal ar?
*
That is the first time ever in this thread, unfortunately, that someone has asked this question - whether 'advice' given is legal or otherwise. doh.gif

It is a sad day indeed. cry.gif

TSdariofoo
post Mar 2 2011, 02:38 PM

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QUOTE(Ms Sim @ Mar 2 2011, 11:10 AM)
Dear all,

Would like to ask, recently I already collected my key for my new home. However, I am still paying the progressive interest instead of the home loan. I've called to ask the bank but they told me that they are still pending for the remaining 2.5% that yet to release to the developer due to the fact that the developer has not obtained the strate title to them. This makes me so confused. On the other side, the lawyer said told me that the remaining 2.5% only will be released only after 18 months after I take possession on my house. This makes me even more confused. Can anybody advice me? Thanks a million as I feel so lost now...
*
There's absolutely nothing to be confused! smile.gif

The answer lies in the most important document of all - the sale and purchase agreement. Have you taken the time to read it? hmm.gif

At the back of the agreement, there ought to be a Schedule. At the bottom of the schedule there will be a clause like this:

Within twenty-one (21) working days after receipt by
the Purchaser or the Purchaser’s solicitors of the
separate document of title to the said Lot together with a
valid and registrable Memorandum of Transfer to the
Purchaser duly executed by the Vendor or on the date
the Purchaser takes vacant possession of the said
Building, whichever is later. 2.5 %

On the date the Purchaser takes vacant possession of the
said Building as in item 3 and to be held by the Vendor's
solicitor as stakeholder for payment to the Vendor as
follows:-
(a) two point five per centum (2.5%) at the expiry
of six (6) months after the date the Purchaser
takes vacant possession of the said Building;
(b) two point five per centum (2.5%) at the expiry
of eighteen (18) months after the date the
Purchaser takes vacant possession of the said
Building.


There you go. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Mar 2 2011, 02:40 PM

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QUOTE(Hansel @ Mar 1 2011, 09:18 PM)
Please read my previous posting first to get more details. Ascertain from a learned party where the source of the problem is, then ascertain if the management is responsible for the rectification.

If the above are done and indeed the mgmt is responsible, then engage a lawyer to forward a letter-of-demand to the mgmt, attached with the photos and the report of all done in the above.

After this, the mgmt will be forced to reply. Then take it from there and see what they said. Your first objective now is to force a reply out of the mgmt.

Bro dariofoo,... what sez you ?
*
Bro, I think the first question that we need to ask our friend here is this:

Is it still within the defect liablility period?

Better not put the horse before the cart smile.gif
TSdariofoo
post Mar 2 2011, 05:48 PM

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QUOTE(cngi @ Feb 28 2011, 05:52 PM)
How about if buyers already sign, but  developer purposely delay the submission of signed S&P to lawyer, thus delay the stamping of S&P? Any rules/law preventing them from doing so?
*
Are you speaking from experience or are you giving a hypothetical situation? In reality there's no reason for the developer to intentionally delay. The sooner the SPA is executed, the sooner the purchaser can apply for a loan, the sooner it can be approved (or rejected, and the sooner the developer can start looking for another purchaser), and the sooner the developer can receive the money.

There's no rule/law to prevent the developer from doing so - i.e. delaying executing the agreement. Nothing specified in the sample agreement too (Schedule G & H).
TSdariofoo
post Mar 2 2011, 05:55 PM

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QUOTE(Hansel @ Mar 2 2011, 05:35 PM)
I believed the situation is related to a built-up structure which would most probably be beyond the DLP.

Personally, if water leakage, it would not be related to structure here.
*
hmm.gif

QUOTE(Hansel @ Mar 2 2011, 05:35 PM)
Bro,.. I believed the Defect Liability Period applies to a situation of handing over from a developer to a purchaser. Anyway, my suggestion would trap this responsibility too, be it the responsibility of the prchaser or of the developer.

But in this case - I believed the situation is related to a built-up structure which would most probably be beyond the DLP. If the cause and the source of the problem is related to something that the mgmt should be responsible for, eg leaking service mains, pipes, etc, then the mgmt should provide the rectification.

Otherwise, we should identify who the final responsible party is, and take it from there.

Hmm,... hmm.gif then again, could it be that if the cause and source of the problem is related to the structure, it would fall under the earlier DLP ?

Personally, if water leakage, it would not be related to structure here. Probably to pipes,... then, legally, it would be under another owner or the mgmt. The person who asked the question here said the unit was at the highest floor - so, must be the mgmt then.
*
Let's look at the standard clause for DLP:

Defect liability period
26. (1) Any defect, shrinkage or other faults in the said Building which shall
become apparent within a period of eighteen (18) calendar months after the date the
Purchaser takes vacant possession of the said Building to which water and electricity
supply are ready for connection to the said Building, and which are due to defective
workmanship or materials
or the said Building not having been constructed in
accordance with the plans and description as specified in the Second and Fourth
Schedule as approved or amended by the Appropriate Authority ,shall be repaired and
made good by the Vendor at its own cost and expenses within thirty (30) days of its
having received written notice thereof from the Purchaser and if the said defect,
shrinkage or other faults in the said Building have not been made good by the Vendor,
the Purchaser shall be entitled to recover from the Vendor the costs of repairing and
making good the same and the Purchaser may deduct such costs from any sum which
has been held by the Vendor's solicitors as stakeholder for the Vendor and subject to
subclause (2), the Vendor’s solicitors shall release such costs from such sum to the
Purchaser within fourteen (14) days after receipt by the Vendor’s solicitors of the
Purchaser’s written demand.

(2) The Purchaser shall, at any time after the expiry of the said period of
thirty (30) days, notify the Vendor of the cost of repairing and making good the said
defects, shrinkage or other faults before the commencement of the works and shall give
the Vendor an opportunity to carry out the works himself within fourteen (14) days from
the date the Purchaser has notified the Vendor of his intention to carry out the said
works.

Shouldn't leaking/burst pipes/water tanks be under 'defective materials' ? hmm.gif

I'd argue it that way. What say you, Hansel?

TSdariofoo
post Mar 3 2011, 10:40 AM

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QUOTE(Ms Sim @ Mar 2 2011, 09:29 PM)
means I still need to pay for progressive payment to bank for another 18 months? Sorry that I am really noob in this...
*
That is between you and your bank and whatever terms and conditions as to repayment would be stated in the facilities agreement. Perhaps it would be wiser to consult your mortgage consultant to get the details on this. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Mar 3 2011, 04:40 PM

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QUOTE(Hansel @ Mar 3 2011, 03:08 PM)
Great question,... bro,.. my answer :-

1) If truly the pipes burst here, then if the building is still inside the DLP - then yes, I would call it Defective Materials, and falls under the S&P.

2) And; if the pipes burst AFTER the DLP, then I would call it : Wear & Tear, and, depending on the the act governing Buildings maintenance, can't recall what that agmt is called, either the mgmt or the owner will be responsible.

That's how I would look at it.
*
Basically if it falls under scenario (1), then yes, the developer/m'ment office has to repair the defect - still within DLP. No issues there.

If under scenario (2), and if it is after the DLP, then the question we have to ask is whether those pipes fall under the definition of 'common property':

a) Strata Titles Act 1985 - building managed by Management Corporation

Section 43 of the Strata Titles Act
43. Duties and powers of management corporation.
(1) The duties of the management corporation include the following -
(a) to manage and properly maintain the common property and keep it in a state of good and serviceable repair.

Definition of common property
Section 4 of the Act
"common property" means so much of the lot as is not comprised in any parcel (including any accessory parcel), or any provisional block as shown in an approved strata plan.

b) Building and Common Property (Maintenance and Management) Act 2007 - buiding managed by JMB

Section 8 of the Act
8. Duties and powers of Joint Management Body
(1) The duties of the Body include the following:
(a) to properly maintain the common property and keep it in a state of good and serviceable repair

Definition of common property
“common property”, in relation to a development area, means so much of the development area as is not comprised in any parcel, such as the structural elements of the building, stairs, stairways, fire escapes, entrances and exits, corridors, lobbies, fixtures and fittings, lifts, refuse chutes, refuse bins, compounds, drains, water tanks, sewers, pipes, wires, cables and ducts that serve more than one parcel, the exterior of all common parts of the building, playing fields and recreational areas, driveways, car parks and parking areas, open spaces, landscape areas, walls and fences, and all other facilities and installations and any part of the land used or capable of being used or enjoyed in common by all the occupiers of the building

PS: Note the difference in the definition! laugh.gif

I think it's safe to say that pipes which are not part of an individual parcel, i.e main pipes running above the unit - linking the unit's pipeline to the water tank - are part and parcel of the common property.

As such, even if it is after the DLP, the MC/JMB would still have to repair the defect.

Assuming, of course, that the defect is a defect of a common property. smile.gif





TSdariofoo
post Mar 3 2011, 04:43 PM

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QUOTE(mywii @ Mar 3 2011, 04:18 PM)
rclxub.gif dun understand....did I say something?
*
Read the discussion with Hansel above for a better idea.

Is it within the DLP? Has it been 18 months since date of vacant posession? Check with friend.

Advise your friend to write a letter of complaint to the m'ment office detailing the defect and stating that it has been since xxxx date.

Get it acknowledged.

If still within DLP, cc it to the solicitor who prepared the S&P for their record purposes. nod.gif

Don't advise your friend to stop paying maintenance, offset charge, etc etc. That is wrong and contrary to the law. bruce.gif
TSdariofoo
post Mar 3 2011, 09:07 PM

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QUOTE(mywii @ Mar 3 2011, 06:37 PM)
Oh...its way over DLP. Few years now.
*
Write to them formally. Get it acknowledged. Would help if he calls up the MC/JMB chairperson up and inform him of the problem personally. If it's one of the main pipes then it's a serious cause of concern for all,right?

The m'ment office ought to have a maintenance guy in charge who can take a look and see if it is the main pipes. If it's the main pipes then it's common property and it is their duty to sort it out.

If things do delay then spend a bit of money by engaging a lawyer to send a legal demand in. That ought to make them quiver in their boots and get crackin' nod.gif

Good luck
TSdariofoo
post Mar 4 2011, 03:47 PM

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QUOTE(Hansel @ Mar 4 2011, 11:47 AM)
Good finishing from Bro Dariofoo. This should be the ending to your consultative request.

Anyway, to add a reminder here, do not depend only on the mgmt's maintenance guy. I have come across maintenance people who provide biased opinions. I would like to go back to my very first advice here :-

Prior to accusing the management of being the responsible party here, I would suggest that the friend gets a skilled contractor to come and have a look at the problem first. Ensure that the problem falls under the jurisdiction of the management first before handing the repair bills to them.

We must find out where the problem is first,... and what caused it. Then we must decide who is responsible for the rectification.

-----------------------

So, get your own independant professional to evaluate too.
*
Good advice and fair enough, but who's gonna pay for the said skilled contractor to come in to give an evaluation? That itself is going to cost some money. With the usual Malaysian mentality of 'why should I fork out my own money to pay to fix something which is someone else's problem/responsibility????', that idea would not stretch far.

Right,bro Hansel? laugh.gif
TSdariofoo
post Mar 4 2011, 11:10 PM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Mar 4 2011, 07:02 PM)
What are the consequence if I cancel S&P when the name has not been transferred ?

Do I get back my lawyer fees ?

S&P already signed but waiting for letter of consent.

Bank loan docs already signed so can it be cancelled too ?
*
Welcome,bro! smile.gif

When you say cancel you mean abort the S&P right? Then that would be a default on your part and the vendor has the right to forfeit the 10% deposit. Any other monies paid by you, like the differential sum (if you're not taking 90% loan) will be refunded to you.

With regard to legal fees paid, you are entitled to a 50% refund on the legal fees paid, and all stamp duty deposited and any disbursements which are not spent yet (like the payment for registration of transfer) must be refunded to you.

With regard to bank loan docs, did you pay a certain sum as deposit to your loan sol. I hear that Hong Leong instructs it's solicitors to retain RM1,000.00 as deposit which is refundable when the transaction is complete. I think if you abort it they will forfeit the RM1,000.00 as a form of penalty.

Not sure with other banks though. Would be wise to read up on the letter of offer. Technically the facility agreement would not be in force yet as it has not been stamped with the ad valorem stamp duty. So it would fall back on the terms of the letter of offer. Am sure there would be a penalty as the loan solicitor would've started work on your file. Perhaps you can check with your mortgage consultant on this as well.

Hope the above helps,mate. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Mar 7 2011, 11:04 AM

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QUOTE(jalsrix @ Mar 6 2011, 09:55 AM)
I didn't pay any deposit except my lawyer demanded the legal fees and disbursement for the bank loan right from the start.

There are separate legal fees and disbursement for bank loan.

I guess it is the same penalty as the S&P ?

My mortgage consultant can't even answer simple questions like why my bank lawyer can't handle property valuation fees.  doh.gif  Forget about asking her any more questions.

I am really pissed off with my lawyer and EON bank.

If I transfer my bank loan and  s&P to another lawyer to complete the process , will there be a penalty for the old lawyer ?
*
What do you mean by penalty? Banks impose a penalty on you, not lawyers.

Lawyers can't impose penalty. For aborted S&Ps, they can only charge you half of the legal fees and disbursements actually incurred up to that date. If you had paid upfront in full for everything ask for a refund.
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post Mar 7 2011, 11:09 AM

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QUOTE(East Wind @ Mar 7 2011, 12:15 AM)
I have been hit with penalty (% interest of the loan amount) by the vendor lawyer because my bank loan lawyer take his own sweet time to process my application. doh.gif

The vendor lawyer told me that I can claim back the penalty (equivalent to 3 months of rent) from my loan lawyer. Is that true. Can I sue the loan lawyer?
*
What do you mean by take his own sweet time?

Have you sat down with your S&P lawyer to find out the chronology of events leading up to the completion date being extended? Why listen to the vendor's solicitor when you have your own solicitors for the S&P as well as for the loan? Best to get detailed facts first before jumping to conclusions.

If the delay is wholly attributed to the loan solicitors (and nothing to the bank), then you can complain to your bank and see if they instruct the loan solicitor to cough up the late penalty interest. If the delay is due to the bank, they ought to pay up on your behalf.

No you can't sue the lawyer, but you can file a complaint at the Advocates & Solicitors Disciplinary Board. But get your facts right first.
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post Mar 7 2011, 12:46 PM

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QUOTE(jady @ Mar 7 2011, 11:22 AM)
I signed loan agreement mid of January. Until mid of Feb, my SPA lawyer called me to settle all S&P fees. Paid everything on 3rd week of Feb.

Until now, loan lawyer said they still waiting for document from SPA lawyer.
I called SPA side, they keep telling will post these few days. I asked what are the things that still pending causing the delay, but they refuse to answer, just keep saying will post these few days. Until now already 2 weeks, still not yet post.

My 3 months duration will end on 23 March. My vendor is not represent by any lawyer. May I know will I be charged for late penalty?
*
Well, if your agreement states that it is 3+1 from the date of the agreement, they yes, the vendor is entitled to seek LPI from you once you exceed the 3 month period. Whether the vendor wants to claim it is a different story altogether.

With regard to your lawyer, it is best to write formally to them , detailing your phone conversation with them and the fact that they are not being responsive to you. Send it in by hand and get an acknowledgment.

You can use it against them later, in the event you want to file a complaint against them. If you wait until the end of the transaction before issuing the letter, then it might be regarded as an afterthought. Do it now. It might keep them on their toes as well. nod.gif

TSdariofoo
post Mar 8 2011, 01:55 PM

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QUOTE(beast_doadore @ Mar 7 2011, 05:02 PM)
do you know how long its take time to process after this stage?
do you think it is enough time for loan lawyer to complete the "procedures" and write a letter to bank to issue the money to the owner?  cry.gif
*
Which stage are you referring to,bro? hmm.gif
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post Mar 8 2011, 01:56 PM

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QUOTE(jady @ Mar 7 2011, 05:25 PM)
Dario: Thanks a lot! I already type out the letter as per your suggestion then my loan lawyer called to inform they already receive the documents today. I'm so relieved!  rclxm9.gif
*
Good,but keep your fingers crossed that it can be completed in time. Now you have to push your loan solicitor to chase the bank to release the balance loan sum A.S.A.P. nod.gif


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