QUOTE(cherroy @ Apr 13 2013, 04:25 PM)
Share price in the market will be adjusted on the ex-date of the right issue accordingly to the portion of right issue.
For eg.
if closing price of prior before ex-right share date is 0.76, and it is 1: 4 right issue at 0.23, the next trading day, the share opening indicated price will be
[(0.76 x 1) + (0.23 x 4)] / 5
= 0.336.
So the opening price on the ex-right shares date will be 0.34.
If the share price doesn't go up beyond 0.34, one is not making any money from subcription of the right issue.
Basically, the share price won't stay at 0.76 on the ex-date on right issue, the share price will be adjusted for the right issue.
Since the right is renounceable, means one can actually sell the right/form of the right share (without need to fork out money or don't want to buy the right issue at 0.23 ),
The right (probably with the name/code MAS-OR) will be traded (for about 2 week), at the difference between 0.23 and share price on the particular day.
So if the adjusted share price is 0.34, the renounceable right may be traded at around 0.07~0.08 (as the renounceable right worth = share price after adjusted - 0.23)
Many Thanks Cherroy for the explanation. But why 0.07~0.08? coz 0.34-0.23=0.11. Is the right usually traded at a lower price , eg something like a warrant? Also, during the 2 weeks,
1. If a person sell the 4 unit of rights, the seller will be at disadvantage coz he is downgrading his share from 0.76 to 0.34 (assuming no change in everything) with additional price of 0.08*4 = 0.32. 0.32+0.34=0.68, a clear disadvantage. Am i right?
2. If a person buy the 4 unit of rights from the seller at 0.08, Is he acquiring future MAS mother share at a price of 0.23+0.08 = 0.31 each?
Hope u understand my question. Thanks.