QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 24 2011, 10:17 AM)
1. I'm sure you would've executed it. Or else no way the property can be subsequently transferred to you.
Lawyers Corner, A one-stop centre on lawyers and queries
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Feb 24 2011, 11:19 AM
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Senior Member
1,024 posts Joined: Sep 2005 From: Johor |
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Feb 24 2011, 11:39 AM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
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Feb 24 2011, 12:28 PM
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Junior Member
11 posts Joined: Sep 2009 |
hie..do u provide advise on partnership agreements?
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Feb 24 2011, 12:42 PM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
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Feb 24 2011, 02:03 PM
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808 posts Joined: May 2010 |
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 24 2011, 10:31 AM) » Click to show Spoiler - click again to hide... « You asked a question and you proceeded to answer it yourself. So there's your answer. Is there even any proof that he paid the 5k to you? Was it by cash? Might as well you put things in writing by way of a letter stating that the final payment of 2k would be deemed to be 1k being outstanding rent and 1k being part-payment of the purchase price. Get him to acknowledge it. If he doesn't then it's his word against your word and things will be a messy messy messy free-for-all since there's nothing in writing to confirm ANYTHING. Is there anything in writing? At all? Well, every month after she pay us rental, we provide a slip. so the few months she din pay, she doesnt has the slip. |
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Feb 24 2011, 03:46 PM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
QUOTE(MsPopcorn @ Feb 24 2011, 02:03 PM) a rental slip which wrote rm2k cash payment for house purchase. Then just follow my advice and get her to sign a letter stating that the final payment of 2k would be deemed to be 1k being outstanding rent and 1k being part-payment of the purchase price.Well, every month after she pay us rental, we provide a slip. so the few months she din pay, she doesnt has the slip. That ought to regularise things. For the moment, at least. |
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Feb 24 2011, 07:11 PM
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Senior Member
808 posts Joined: May 2010 |
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 24 2011, 03:46 PM) Then just follow my advice and get her to sign a letter stating that the final payment of 2k would be deemed to be 1k being outstanding rent and 1k being part-payment of the purchase price. If buyer refused to sign? any idea? That ought to regularise things. For the moment, at least. Added on February 24, 2011, 9:08 pmCan anyone draft me a letter of house transfer ownership or any link i can download a sample letter? This post has been edited by MsPopcorn: Feb 24 2011, 09:08 PM |
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Feb 25 2011, 01:43 PM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
QUOTE(MsPopcorn @ Feb 24 2011, 07:11 PM) If buyer refused to sign? any idea? Then it's time to see a lawyer. Same thing for 'house transfer ownership'. Let a lawyer do it properly for you. It's not as easy as downloading sample letters and filling it up yourself.Added on February 24, 2011, 9:08 pmCan anyone draft me a letter of house transfer ownership or any link i can download a sample letter? Good luck. |
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Feb 25 2011, 04:38 PM
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Junior Member
5 posts Joined: Feb 2011 |
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 24 2011, 10:21 AM) To be honest, it does sound quite fishy from the lawyer's end as it does not take 3 months for a letter of confirmation to be sent out by the developer. Normally they are quite fast. I still waiting lawyer to revert my request on getting the copy of letter of confirmation by the developer, meanwhile I check back my mail box, i had recieve a email from law firm, Date 25.11.2010Did they fax it first? How do they know that it was posted on 7/10/2010? AR Card? Certificate of posting? Check with them. How can there be an almost 3 months gap from date of posting to date of receipt? Someone is lying. But the question is....who????? March up to the law firm and ask to see their acknowledgement copy immediately. the mail content (with attachment of a letter the law firm send to developer for requesting the master chargee infomation): The developer just provide us(law firm) the particular of the master chargee recently despite we have asked from them quite some time ago. they have already written in to the Master Chargee for the Disclaimer Letter and we shall proceed to advise the Bank to release the REDEMPTION SUM to the Master Chargee as well as your BANK." My question : 1. Without letter of comfirmation by the developer, they(lawyer) cant start any action inadvance right? It prove that they(law firm) should receive the confirmation letter quite some time already, am I right? Thanks |
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Feb 26 2011, 11:10 AM
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Junior Member
13 posts Joined: Nov 2010 |
Hi Dario,
I am in the midst of reviewing the purchaser draft of S&P and Deed of assignment. May i ask what is a deed of assignment? Thanks. |
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Feb 26 2011, 12:42 PM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
QUOTE(Isaclim @ Feb 25 2011, 04:38 PM) I still waiting lawyer to revert my request on getting the copy of letter of confirmation by the developer, meanwhile I check back my mail box, i had recieve a email from law firm, Date 25.11.2010 Yes, they would wait for the developer to revert with the letter of confirmation as the letter would state particulars of the master chargee and the latest position with regard to same. Even if you look at their e-mail they stated "The developer just provide us(law firm) the particular of the master chargee recently".the mail content (with attachment of a letter the law firm send to developer for requesting the master chargee infomation): The developer just provide us(law firm) the particular of the master chargee recently despite we have asked from them quite some time ago. they have already written in to the Master Chargee for the Disclaimer Letter and we shall proceed to advise the Bank to release the REDEMPTION SUM to the Master Chargee as well as your BANK." My question : 1. Without letter of comfirmation by the developer, they(lawyer) cant start any action inadvance right? It prove that they(law firm) should receive the confirmation letter quite some time already, am I right? Thanks I would say that information was given by the letter of undertaking. |
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Feb 26 2011, 12:47 PM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
QUOTE(anjoilin @ Feb 26 2011, 11:10 AM) Hi Dario, A deed of assignment (DOA) is an agreement whereby you agree to assign all your rights over the property to the Bank.I am in the midst of reviewing the purchaser draft of S&P and Deed of assignment. May i ask what is a deed of assignment? Thanks. DOAs arise when there is no individual title for your property and the whole development is still under a master title. When the loan with your Bank has been fully settled, the Bank will execute a Deed of Receipt and Reassignment (R&R), whereby the bank reassigns its right over the property back to you. When you subsequently sell your property, and assuming that the individual title is still not issued yet, you will assign your rights to the new purchaser by way of a new DOA. It's pretty much proof of ownership of property. |
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Feb 26 2011, 01:30 PM
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Junior Member
13 posts Joined: Nov 2010 |
Ic.. So I guess I will need to sign it for the sales to proceed.
But why will we need to assign the rights to purchaser when the bank owns the property and also we have not execute the S&P yet? |
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Feb 27 2011, 02:01 AM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
QUOTE(anjoilin @ Feb 26 2011, 01:30 PM) Ic.. So I guess I will need to sign it for the sales to proceed. You need to sign it only if you're taking a loan. If you're a cash purchaser then you only sign the SPA.But why will we need to assign the rights to purchaser when the bank owns the property and also we have not execute the S&P yet? I think my explanation may have confused you. You are the purchaser and you assign your rights over the property by way of a DOA. You are essentially the owner of the property and you merely assign it to the bank as secutiry for a loan |
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Feb 27 2011, 10:45 AM
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Junior Member
283 posts Joined: Jul 2010 |
hi dario
can i get the lawyer to place a caveat on a prop whereby the transaction is unable to proceed with the signing of S&P as one of the directors refused to execute a resolution to sell ? the letter of offer has been signed and the 14 days for the signing of s&P has lapsed . My second question would be - with a caveat , can the owner still rent it out though he wont be able to sell it until the caveat is removed..? Thanks Jess |
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Feb 27 2011, 01:50 PM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
Jess,
To lodge a caveat you need to have a caveatable interest and that only accrues upon signing the SPA and paying the 10% deposit. Until then you can't caveat the property. If the 14 days has lapsed your remedy is to request for a refund of the deposit paid, or alternatively, grant the vendor an extension of time. With regard to your second question - the answer is yes, the owner can still rent it out. A caveat only stops him from transferring ownership of the property to another party, This post has been edited by dariofoo: Feb 27 2011, 01:52 PM |
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Feb 27 2011, 03:49 PM
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Junior Member
283 posts Joined: Jul 2010 |
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2011, 01:50 PM) Jess, Thanks Dario..strange as my lawyer claimed that a caveat can be lodged and she said she has done it though i have not seen any proof it has been done.To lodge a caveat you need to have a caveatable interest and that only accrues upon signing the SPA and paying the 10% deposit. Until then you can't caveat the property. If the 14 days has lapsed your remedy is to request for a refund of the deposit paid, or alternatively, grant the vendor an extension of time. With regard to your second question - the answer is yes, the owner can still rent it out. A caveat only stops him from transferring ownership of the property to another party, One of my friends said it could not be done as well... I had given the vendor an extension of time but that too has lapsed..the agent has returned my 2% deposit. in the meantime, i have incurred legal fees for having the S&P drafted so i guess there is no recourse for me except to sue the vendor for compensation? he has so far refused to pay.. |
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Feb 27 2011, 06:36 PM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
Jessy,
In the circumstances where the sale was aborted due to the refusal of the vendor to proceed with the sale, and if you intend to sue the vendor upon the letter of offer to compel him to sell it, then yes, you can lodge a caveat. However, you cannot accept the refund of the 2% as you would be deemed to have acquiesced (agreed) to the cancellation of the letter of offer and accept the refund of the deposit, thus restoring parties to their original position. If you had accepted the money, then I'm afraid you've severely weakened your chances to enforce the letter of offer (i'm assuming there's one as there's an agent involved, and agents would have a standard form) If you want to proceed to sue for specific performance, then yes, go ahead and instruct your lawyer to lodge a caveat. On another note, your lawyer shouldn't charge you full scaled fees if the sale got aborted. I know certain lawyers only charge a token sum ranging from RM200 - RM500 for merely preparing a draft SPA, and perhaps disbursements incurred, i.e land search. That's all. |
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Feb 27 2011, 08:18 PM
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Junior Member
283 posts Joined: Jul 2010 |
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Feb 27 2011, 06:36 PM) Jessy, Thanks for your reply Dario..In the circumstances where the sale was aborted due to the refusal of the vendor to proceed with the sale, and if you intend to sue the vendor upon the letter of offer to compel him to sell it, then yes, you can lodge a caveat. However, you cannot accept the refund of the 2% as you would be deemed to have acquiesced (agreed) to the cancellation of the letter of offer and accept the refund of the deposit, thus restoring parties to their original position. If you had accepted the money, then I'm afraid you've severely weakened your chances to enforce the letter of offer (i'm assuming there's one as there's an agent involved, and agents would have a standard form) If you want to proceed to sue for specific performance, then yes, go ahead and instruct your lawyer to lodge a caveat. On another note, your lawyer shouldn't charge you full scaled fees if the sale got aborted. I know certain lawyers only charge a token sum ranging from RM200 - RM500 for merely preparing a draft SPA, and perhaps disbursements incurred, i.e land search. That's all. oh boy..! my lawyer told me i should go ahead and get the deposit back and she subsequently wrote to the agent requesting for the refund. She was also aware that i wanted to pursue the vendor for compensation (sum equivalent to the 2% deposit i paid amounting to about 25k) rather than specific performance So you mean that i can only sue the vendor for specific performance but not compensation ? the letter of offer via the agent clearly indicate that i can pursue for either one or the other,and i chose compensation..the purpose of lodging the caveat was to compel the vendor to pay up ..As the vendor did not appoint his own lawyer but used my lawyer, he was advised of the consequences should he not go ahead with the S&P ... Thanks for the info on the fee chargeable..i will ensure i dont land up with a big fat bill.. |
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Feb 28 2011, 11:40 AM
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Elite
2,795 posts Joined: Aug 2010 From: District 9 |
QUOTE(jessy123 @ Feb 27 2011, 08:18 PM) Thanks for your reply Dario.. Jessy,oh boy..! my lawyer told me i should go ahead and get the deposit back and she subsequently wrote to the agent requesting for the refund. She was also aware that i wanted to pursue the vendor for compensation (sum equivalent to the 2% deposit i paid amounting to about 25k) rather than specific performance So you mean that i can only sue the vendor for specific performance but not compensation ? the letter of offer via the agent clearly indicate that i can pursue for either one or the other,and i chose compensation..the purpose of lodging the caveat was to compel the vendor to pay up ..As the vendor did not appoint his own lawyer but used my lawyer, he was advised of the consequences should he not go ahead with the S&P ... Thanks for the info on the fee chargeable..i will ensure i dont land up with a big fat bill.. So now you're saying that your letter of offer contains a term which states that if the transaction is aborted, the vendor has to refund to you the 2% paid plus another 2% being compensation? Why didn't you state that earlier? Well, in that case then go ahead. Take the refund and sue for the 2%. My earlier advice would not be applicable in your case as you have stated that there is a separate clause which states for the vendor to pay you 2% as compensation. As far as I know, if the vendor fails to proceed, the 2% deposit will be refunded to the purchaser and parties will have no further claim against the other. I think that is a common clause. Guess i'm wrong. If the purchaser fails to proceed, the 2% will be forfeited by the vendor and parties will have no further claim against the other. Is that what is reflected in your letter of offer? With regard to the caveat, if you're suing for RM25k, you still CAN'T lodge a caveat over the property. You still do not have a caveatable interest over the property. It's different if you want to enforce the letter of offer and go for specific performance. Then yes, your intention to caveat the property is because if they transfer it to a third party, it will defeat your claim and render it academic and redundant. Your lawyer ought to know better of the dangers and pitfalls of caveating a property without due reason. You can be sued by the proprietor for damages. Perhaps you should ask her more about this and be certain about it before deciding to caveat or otherwise. If it is merely to put pressure on them to pay you 25k, it's a gamble which I would seriously advise against. This post has been edited by dariofoo: Feb 28 2011, 11:46 AM |
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