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 Would you buy a property not under your name?, Need to wait 2-3 years for name transfer

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tinkerbel
post Aug 6 2008, 11:48 AM

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Yeah I was just about to suggest for U to find out from owner; there is NO reason AFAIK that would make it impossible to transfer ownership.


TSagape_ian
post Aug 14 2008, 04:41 PM

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QUOTE(johnsonm @ Aug 5 2008, 06:24 PM)
some properties do have restrictions such as the owner cannot dispose of it for the 1st 5 years etc. i suspect this could be the case here.

a power of attorney is basically the seller holding all the rights to the property, but giving to you the power to sign all documents on his behalf. to strengthen your position further, you could do a declaration of trust, where the seller declares that although the property is in his name, he is holding it on trust for you, and you are the true owner.

however, if the seller decides to go behind your back and sell the property off to a 3rd party, the 3rd party is not bound to do any form of investigation into whether the seller has given powers of attorney or declared trusts over the property.

the owner gets his money, runs, and you see a lawyer, sue him for breach of trust, get judgement in the court, and cant find the owner to get your money back.

then you might get depressed and start doing drugs, and listen to michael learns to rock. it doesn't get any worse than that.
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Meaning with the power of attorney and/or declaration of trust, by law you are still not the legal owner of this unit? What documents are used to prove that the owner of the property? Strata title?
cherroy
post Aug 14 2008, 04:51 PM

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QUOTE(agape_ian @ Aug 14 2008, 04:41 PM)
Meaning with the power of attorney and/or declaration of trust, by law you are still not the legal owner of this unit? What documents are used to prove that the owner of the property? Strata title?
*
If not mistaken, don't take my word as correct, seek professional lawyer for advice if really want to do.

Yes, by law, the ultimate owner of the property is the name written on the 'Geran' or "Strata title".

So the owner of the properties has the right to sell off the properties. If you and the owner has signed a trustee contract or whatever you name it, then it is between you and the owner. Properties sold is not re-claimable. You only can reclaim the money proceed from the properties sold from the owner, so if the owner 'missing in action' then nothing much you can do on the property side, so $$ also with the owner "MIA".

It is very dangerous and risky game to buy on your own money then put others stranger name into it.


TSagape_ian
post Aug 14 2008, 05:07 PM

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QUOTE(cherroy @ Aug 14 2008, 04:51 PM)
If not mistaken, don't take my word as correct, seek professional lawyer for advice if really want to do.

Yes, by law, the ultimate owner of the property is the name written on the 'Geran' or "Strata title".

So the owner of the properties has the right to sell off the properties. If you and the owner has signed a trustee contract or whatever you name it, then it is between you and the owner. Properties sold is not re-claimable. You only can reclaim the money proceed from the properties sold from the owner, so if the owner 'missing in action' then nothing much you can do on the property side, so $$ also with the owner "MIA".

It is very dangerous and risky game to buy on your own money then put others stranger name into it.
*
Agree with you.

Another question, what if the owner's name is not written on the strata title? Meaning the developer owns the strata title. The developer will only release to the owners after a certain period. Could it be the case here?

The developer will then release to the owners based on the S&P agreement. Is this true?
cherroy
post Aug 15 2008, 09:18 AM

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QUOTE(agape_ian @ Aug 14 2008, 05:07 PM)
Agree with you.

Another question, what if the owner's name is not written on the strata title? Meaning the developer owns the strata title. The developer will only release to the owners after a certain period. Could it be the case here?

The developer will then release to the owners based on the S&P agreement. Is this true?
*
Yes, if strate title has not been released, then all are according to S&P agreement signed as the name of owner of the strate title is according to the S&P.
johnsonm
post Aug 15 2008, 09:25 AM

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it's like this - if there is a master title, meaning the developer has not subdivided the titles yet, the registered owner of the big piece of land will be the developer. developers are under a duty to apply for subdivision, and once that is done, they will get the individual/strata titles out, and give them to the owners (the person who signed the s&p) or their banks.

there is no situation where the strata title is out but the developer holds on to it.

if you are the owner in the s&p or title, and you declare a trust for someone else, that person in law becomes the owner. however, in practice, the person whose name if on the s&p or title can still go out and sell the property off.
TSagape_ian
post Aug 15 2008, 02:29 PM

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QUOTE(cherroy @ Aug 15 2008, 09:18 AM)
Yes, if strate title has not been released, then all are according to S&P agreement signed as the name of owner of the strate title is according to the S&P.
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What about the S&P between the owner and the buyer? Meaning the developers will still use the initial S&P which is between the developer and the first owner. How?


Added on August 15, 2008, 2:34 pm
QUOTE(johnsonm @ Aug 15 2008, 09:25 AM)
it's like this - if there is a master title, meaning the developer has not subdivided the titles yet, the registered owner of the big piece of land will be the developer. developers are under a duty to apply for subdivision, and once that is done, they will get the individual/strata titles out, and give them to the owners (the person who signed the s&p) or their banks.

there is no situation where the strata title is out but the developer holds on to it.

if you are the owner in the s&p or title, and you declare a trust for someone else, that person in law becomes the owner. however, in practice, the person whose name if on the s&p or title can still go out and sell the property off.
*
Meaning strata title = individual title?

Meaning the owner will have both Master title and the individual (aka. strata) title? And all these titles will prove that the unit belongs to the owner?

This post has been edited by agape_ian: Aug 15 2008, 02:34 PM
wenjie86
post Aug 17 2008, 07:02 PM

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QUOTE(cherroy @ Aug 14 2008, 05:51 PM)
If not mistaken, don't take my word as correct, seek professional lawyer for advice if really want to do.

Yes, by law, the ultimate owner of the property is the name written on the 'Geran' or "Strata title".

So the owner of the properties has the right to sell off the properties. If you and the owner has signed a trustee contract or whatever you name it, then it is between you and the owner. Properties sold is not re-claimable. You only can reclaim the money proceed from the properties sold from the owner, so if the owner 'missing in action' then nothing much you can do on the property side, so $$ also with the owner "MIA".

It is very dangerous and risky game to buy on your own money then put others stranger name into it.
*
trustee only applicable when you and the ownes is IMMEDIATE family..

the best thing you can do if that's the case,

Put Absolute Deed of Assignment

Which means, the owner has transfer the RIGHT and POWER to make decision upon the property to you.

Absolute deed of assignment can be done by any of lawyer, but need to inform the BANK also..!

because, you need to get the STAMPED/CHOP and SIGNATURE from the BANK.

both of you sign, plus witness, then will be alright.

BTW, the STAMP DUTY For Deed of Assignment is only RM10.. dont get CONNED and MISLEAD by LAWYER, need to pay RM1K ++ or RM100+.. REMEMBER, only RM10!!!!!!

even so, u can do it by your own smile.gif , no need lawyer biggrin.gif

TSagape_ian
post Aug 18 2008, 02:05 PM

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QUOTE(wenjie86 @ Aug 17 2008, 07:02 PM)
trustee only applicable when you and the ownes is IMMEDIATE family..

the best thing you can do if that's the case,

Put Absolute Deed of Assignment

Which means, the owner has transfer the RIGHT and POWER to make decision upon the property to you.

Absolute deed of assignment can be done by any of lawyer, but need to inform the BANK also..!

because, you need to get the STAMPED/CHOP and SIGNATURE from the BANK.

both of you sign, plus witness, then will be alright.

BTW, the STAMP DUTY For Deed of Assignment is only RM10.. dont get CONNED and MISLEAD by LAWYER, need to pay RM1K ++ or RM100+.. REMEMBER, only RM10!!!!!!

even so, u can do it by your own smile.gif , no need lawyer biggrin.gif
*
So do you think that Power of Attorney, Absolute Deed of Assignment, and S&P (between owner & you) is secure enough even you do not have your name on the title?
johnsonm
post Aug 18 2008, 03:21 PM

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QUOTE(wenjie86 @ Aug 17 2008, 07:02 PM)
trustee only applicable when you and the ownes is IMMEDIATE family..

the best thing you can do if that's the case,

Put Absolute Deed of Assignment

Which means, the owner has transfer the RIGHT and POWER to make decision upon the property to you.

Absolute deed of assignment can be done by any of lawyer, but need to inform the BANK also..!

because, you need to get the STAMPED/CHOP and SIGNATURE from the BANK.

both of you sign, plus witness, then will be alright.

BTW, the STAMP DUTY For Deed of Assignment is only RM10.. dont get CONNED and MISLEAD by LAWYER, need to pay RM1K ++ or RM100+.. REMEMBER, only RM10!!!!!!

even so, u can do it by your own smile.gif , no need lawyer biggrin.gif
*
Dude, please stop misleading everyone

A trust can be declared by anyone in favour of anyone.

For a Deed of Absolute Assignment, you don't need any "stamped/chop" and signature from the bank.

The stamp duty for a Deed of Assignment is 1% for the first 100k, 2% up to 500k and 3% thereafter. I will gladly give you RM1k to stamp my Deed of Assignment, you can keep the change.


Added on August 18, 2008, 3:24 pm
QUOTE(agape_ian @ Aug 15 2008, 02:29 PM)
What about the S&P between the owner and the buyer? Meaning the developers will still use the initial S&P which is between the developer and the first owner. How?


Added on August 15, 2008, 2:34 pm

Meaning strata title = individual title?

Meaning the owner will have both Master title and the individual (aka. strata) title? And all these titles will prove that the unit belongs to the owner?
*
yes, the strata title is the individual title, but for non-landed properties.

the master title will be subdivided into individual titles by the developer.


Added on August 18, 2008, 3:26 pm
QUOTE(agape_ian @ Aug 18 2008, 02:05 PM)
So do you think that Power of Attorney, Absolute Deed of Assignment, and S&P (between owner & you) is secure enough even you do not have your name on the title?
*
the deed of assignment is sufficient to protect your interest. it protects the interests of many people. however, this is where the developer has been given notice of the deed of assignment. if there is a restriction against the transfer of the property, it will be an invalid assignment, and it will be pointless.

it all depends on the reason behind the inability to assign the property.

This post has been edited by johnsonm: Aug 18 2008, 03:26 PM
TSagape_ian
post Aug 26 2008, 04:18 PM

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QUOTE(johnsonm @ Aug 18 2008, 03:21 PM)

the deed of assignment is sufficient to protect your interest. it protects the interests of many people. however, this is where the developer has been given notice of the deed of assignment. if there is a restriction against the transfer of the property, it will be an invalid assignment, and it will be pointless.

it all depends on the reason behind the inability to assign the property.
*
I heard that you need the initial S&P (between the previous owner and the developer). You only need the Deed of Assignment, Power of Attorney, and Loan Agreement if the owner owns a loan in addition to that S&P.
TSagape_ian
post Sep 3 2008, 12:07 PM

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Back to the initial topic, what if it's an auction unit? 100% can transfer name to yours since you are the successful bidder?
johnsonm
post Sep 3 2008, 03:39 PM

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agape_ian, assuming the proclamation of sale is in order, and the bank has not lost any of their security documents, then it shouldn't be a problem. however, you should also note the restrictions on the title to the property.
TSagape_ian
post Sep 10 2008, 05:51 PM

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QUOTE(johnsonm @ Sep 3 2008, 03:39 PM)
agape_ian, assuming the proclamation of sale is in order, and the bank has not lost any of their security documents, then it shouldn't be a problem. however, you should also note the restrictions on the title to the property.
*
What are the restrictions like? BUMI restrictions? Household Income restrictions?

BTW, what does the following statement means? Any idea?
There is a restriction in interest endorsed on the Parent Title on the transfer and Charge.

 

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