Let me try my attempt in your question
I use example of rm 100k cash invested in blue chip A bhd of rm 1.00 per share at the time invested. (Based on No brokerage and stamp duty and clearing fee)
Initial investment = 1000 lots @ rm 1, hence rm 100k capital fully utilize.
Usually blue chip margin of finance will be 90% to 100%, for this case, i take 100%.
So all 1000 lots of A bhd pledge into share margin account as a collateral. Market value of 100k, margin of 100%, hence your share margin facilites will have 100k credit facilities chargeable at 4% per annum when utlized.
Assume u also utilize all 100k from margin at the same stock A bhd, that will be another 1000 lots.
Case 1.
Dividend 5% from par value of rm1.00 per annum (net amount for easy calculation)
Straight forward case
1000 lot that you held, u get 5%
1000 lot that you used margin facilities at 4% per annum, hence net 1%
So your 100k is giving you 6% when u use margin, rather than just 5% is you do not use margin
Case 2.
3 fold after 5 years
1000 lot you held using your own cash become rm 3, means 300k
1000 lot in margin also become 300k.
So your 100k invested, when fully sold will get 600k.
So that is 600%
But i didnt factor i the 4% for margin financing.
Thanks for taking the time to study and respond, Bonescythe.
Make sense, my cost is that I service the interest payment of 4%, the result of 600k is all mine after selling the share.
But another point, if I pumped in 100k cash, but purchased 200k in shares, that should mean I service 200k x 4% interest payment right?