Q&A, General question on stock market
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 Aug 19 2010, 04:10 PM
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#1
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Senior Member
1,069 posts Joined: Nov 2008 From: Kuala Lumpur  
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i queestion here
let say, Day 1: bought 20lot XX share Day 2 [morning] : sold 10lot XX share Day 2 [evening] : bought back 10lot share is Day2 is considered intraday trading? i searched all example showed intraday trading is buy and sell in the same day, where buy comes first than sell comes later. can sell comes first and buy comes later consider intraday trading just like above eg? |
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Aug 20 2010, 08:51 AM
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#2
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Senior Member
1,069 posts Joined: Nov 2008 From: Kuala Lumpur
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QUOTE(faceless @ Aug 19 2010, 04:16 PM) Sell first and buy later is call short selling. It is not permitted (actually permitted on a regulated basis). Since you have the product (shares) at hand it is not short selling. If you want to macth the way you said, you must make a special request with your remisier who will do the necessaty paper work for it. It may not be entitled to day trading rates. does it mean i need to inform remiser every time i want to make transaction?. i use online trading and i think i might us that type of transaction. if i used standard brokerage fees i dont need to inform them right? |
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