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 Q&A, General question on stock market

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nujikabane
post Jun 13 2009, 12:27 AM

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QUOTE(cherroy @ Jun 12 2009, 03:51 PM)
It is exacly same with 20 shares with 1 time provided it is within the same day.

Contract is counted per day basic per counter, not transaction.

They will treat as 20 shares per contract as well in your case, not different with 20 share in 1 transaction.
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In that case,the brokerage fees is the same whether 5 transaction of 20 shares or 1 transaction of 100 shares ?
nujikabane
post Jun 13 2009, 12:31 AM

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QUOTE(omores @ Jun 13 2009, 12:29 AM)
Yes if on the same day. counted as one contract.

if 5 transactions of 20 shares in different days, then that's a different contract.
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Oic, so that's what it meant by contract basis.

Anyways, what about different shares ?
I mean I sell share A and share B in the same day, is that considered as 1 contract as well ?

This post has been edited by nujikabane: Jun 13 2009, 01:52 AM
nujikabane
post Jun 13 2009, 04:07 AM

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I am still quite blur abt it.

Let me illustrate:

The brokerage fees is 0.7% or RM40, whichever higher.

Say I buy Share A (total RM1000) & Share B (total RM10,000) in the same day, so the brokerage fees applicable to me is either RM40 or RM77, so it should be RM77, right ?

Say I sell Share A and Share B in the same day, then the brokerage fee is same as above (RM77), correct ?

And how about the case of buying and selling in the same day, is it consider as 1 contract, or two (1 for buy, 1 for sell) ?

This post has been edited by nujikabane: Jun 13 2009, 03:19 PM
nujikabane
post Jun 13 2009, 06:23 PM

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QUOTE(cherroy @ Jun 13 2009, 05:33 PM)
Basically it is 2 contracts but it can be treated as intraday trade which majority charges as low as 0.15% brokerage fee.

Just it will be compiled it in one statement.
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That clears the doubt I have, thanks cherroy smile.gif

Perhaps my last question for the day is regarding the dividends.

Say, a company declraes a dividend payment of first & final of 3c, does that mean there will be two payment (1 for first, 1 for final) ?



And if the Company Z declares final 3c, is the calculation like this? :

Say I own 30,000 shares (300 x 100 shares) of Company Z, is the dividend that I will get is RM6 ? (30,000shares x RM0.02)
nujikabane
post Jun 13 2009, 06:38 PM

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QUOTE(mopster @ Jun 13 2009, 06:31 PM)
hi, im learning how to calculate dividend too.. smile.gif
isnt 30,000 X RM0.02 = RM600 ? do you to convert back to RM6 ??
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LOL I might need new calculator tongue.gif
Anyway, let us hope for someone more knowledgeable to answer our question smile.gif
nujikabane
post Jun 13 2009, 10:44 PM

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Very thorough explanation @VyvernS, thanks a lot!

But if the company declare a final 5% and special 10%, what does that mean? Final 5% is understandable based on the information provided by you, but the special ?

And if based on Dyna, the ex-date is on 19th June, wouldn't the share price as at 18th June have reflected the dividend anticipated to be received on 19th June ?
nujikabane
post Jul 15 2009, 12:10 AM

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QUOTE(mopster @ Jul 10 2009, 01:05 AM)
it is ok not to attend or respond to a company's AGM right ?
haha sorry if this question is terribly noob... smile.gif
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I felt obliged to answer you, so here the answer : No obligation whatsoever to not attend or respond to the company's AGM smile.gif
However, if you got the time, you may want to attend. Got makan² and usually goodies, hehe
nujikabane
post Jul 16 2009, 02:25 PM

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^ VywernS is talking abt TA (Technical Analysis) lor,
bukan TA as in the company, lol

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