Q&A, General question on stock market
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 Apr 21 2010, 12:13 AM
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#1
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Senior Member
984 posts Joined: Nov 2008 
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Hi, most companies declare dividends as the number of cents per share. If the company declares dividends in terms of percentage e.g. 10%, the holder of 1000 shares (par value is $1) will get $100.
If the par value is $2, how much will the holder of 1000 shares get? |
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Apr 21 2010, 12:21 AM
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#2
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Senior Member
984 posts Joined: Nov 2008
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Thanks, I was reading some literature about overseas markets & I came across some private unlisted companies having shares with par value $2....
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May 27 2011, 11:58 PM
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#3
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Senior Member
984 posts Joined: Nov 2008
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QUOTE(t5t @ May 25 2011, 10:19 PM) Hi! The profit figure used to calculate EPS is taken from the Income Statement (P & L a/c)Can anyone explain to me the difference between "Profit/(loss) attributable to ordinary equity holders of the parent" and "Profit/(loss) for the period"? "Basic earnings/(loss) per share (Subunit)" uses which of the abovementioned profit? Thank you!  This phrase "Profit/(loss) attributable to ordinary equity holders of the parent" means this figure is after deduction of minority interest. This is the figure in the EPS calculation. Thus if the holding company own 90% of its subsidiary, the 10% is considered as owned by outsiders (minority interest) and it will be deducted from the net profit to get the profit attributable to the share holders of the parent company. This occurs if the listed company is a holding company with a number of subsidiary companies. |
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Jan 1 2013, 10:26 PM
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#4
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Senior Member
984 posts Joined: Nov 2008
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QUOTE(turbopips @ Dec 31 2012, 06:33 PM) Hi all sifus, Most blue chips recover from their ex-dividend price sooner or later. If you adopt a 'hit n run' strategy, then you should sell it cum dividend.Most of the time, when a company pays good dividen, the company share tends to be well liked and stable. However, i have a burning question in my mind all these years, hope some of u could shed some light. If u notice when a stock last trade at RM10 before ex-date Dividen at ex-date = RM0.5 (before minus 26% tax) The effective dividen we get per share = RM0.37 However, Opening price on ex-date will be RM9.5 (adjust by minus RM0.5) Which means that shareholder is actually losing money out of it. Since price will be adjusted anyway, why bother paying dividen? i might as well hope the company does not pay me any dividen, coz i only get RM0.37, but i was deducted RM0.5 from my share. Hope some can help to explain. Thanks |
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Dec 30 2013, 10:13 PM
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#5
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Senior Member
984 posts Joined: Nov 2008
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QUOTE(plumberly @ Dec 29 2013, 08:01 PM) Please help. When I started my working life ages ago in an audit firm, I used see my boss giving a qualified opinion if the accumulated losses of a company exceeded its share capital - the point that the company may not be able to continue as going concern. But today,on this issue, the auditors no longer issues a qualified opinion. They group it under "Emphasis of matter". Times have certainly changed.Taken from an annual report. "The financial statements for the preceding year were audited by another firm of auditors whose report dated 28 August 2012, expressed an unqualified opinion on those statements." What is meant by "unqualified opinion"? The previous auditors do not have the qualification to state their financial statement findings? Thanks. |
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