This

The company provides platform for companionship albeit with implied motivations.

Not sure if that's illegal of and by itself.

Similarly, I do wonder if the prosecutor needs to prove that the service rendered is exclusively prostitution to prove the case. Because I think while it's implied, it's not guaranteed and still contingent upon the mutual consent & understanding sugar daddy & sugar baby themselves, right?

Because enabling of prostitution by itself may not necessarily be a crime because the offense may arguably involve other third parties from condom manufacturers, hotel operators etc.



I dunno tbh. Would be curious how this case affect the law & vice versa.