Hi lowyatt members, is there anyone that have encounter this issue or can advice me on this matter?



Backstory:
I have recently sold my property and appointed a conveyancing lawyer (basically property agent's lawyer) to do the transfer to buyer.

I remember during the discussion, the lawyer provide me a form to fill indicating when to pay the agent fee/commission and there were 2 choices i.e. during the buyer's fulfillment of paying 10% of the sale amount OR during the bank's release of the balance sale amount of 90%. I selected to pay the agent after receiving the 90% sum.

In addition, during the signing of S&P at lawyer's office, I've notice the seller/vendor's address was my old address and inform the lawyer to change to new address.


Event that took place:
When the S&P was stamp and a softcopy was sent to me on October, I've noticed the vendor's address remains the old address.

While yesterday, when received the initial 10% from buyer, the lawyer also have deducted the agent fee.


My question is whether the solicitor can do whatever they like without informing me (the client) or do as they see fit and beneficial to the agent? Or is it a standard thingy?

There are some other minor issues such as not answering queries but is not as bad as the ones above.

If there is a problem here, where can I bring this matter to? To me is the matter of principle.

thank you for advice.

thanks for the input, yes I did insist, the lawyer gave me this reason: Her staff didnt receive the notice to change from her manager (i.e. the PIC that I was with during signing of documents).
btw, I am the one request to deduct agent fee fr payment but was fr the remainder 90% fr bank not fr 10% by buyer. even fill a form indicating that.

This post has been edited by cintamani83: Nov 24 2020, 07:05 PM

thanks, that would be my next step if I didnt get a reply.

for my case, the solicitor request me to fill a form to choose either to pay agent using the 10% from buyer OR during balance of 90% by bank. I chose the later. The solicitor collected exactly 10% from buyer. The excuse she gave me was... "oh the 90% balance fr bank is for cases whereby deposit is low like 1k or 1.5k. Is this really a valid reason?

This post has been edited by cintamani83: Nov 24 2020, 07:03 PM

thank you

Lesson learned. thanks

Now I refer case to JBG.