In a SnP, there is ONLY ONE price.

Somehow, someday there will be a noob who will buy at inflated price and I dont think is illegal. The bank / valuer may think he bought at mark up price and adjust the loan accordingly.

As mentioned earlier, there is a range of prices of similar properties. When the property was purchased at the highest range, we cant say is mark up unless is way beyond acceptable level.

If the buyer can beat the system, then he gained with a slightly higher loan. A 30k mark up for a 80% loan is 24k.and is acceptable for a 500k property.

What happened behnd the SnP is between seller buyer.

This post has been edited by mini orchard: Jul 21 2020, 10:13 PM

I think what TS meant is the SPA is marked up at a higher price in order for him to obtain a loan. In fact there is an actual purchase price agreed upon by the seller and buyer at a lower price compared to the written value on the spa.

Buyer can put whatever spa price but bank loan follow valuers price. Now a day, not many valuer will give overinflated price.

Today's reality, usually the purchaser will obtain an offer from bank before deciding to mark up an SPA. So, I'll assume the Offer Letter is obtained before the execution of SPA. Usually inside the SPA, it will written the submission of SPA at what value.

Mutual agreement between buyer and seller.. Normally bank will base on professional valuer

This post has been edited by tripleA+: Jul 22 2020, 12:28 AM

I know there is only 1 price is SPA. But there is definitely a supplementary agreement to state the vendor selling price (Actual selling price). therefore it is illegal to do so.

There are ways to settle the mark up price. One dont need a supplement agreement between seller buyer.

it is legal - as you can quote as discounts to purchaser

So this kind of side agreement can really make it legal??

Yes, otherwise im replying this from jail already.

If the loan is defaulted soon after dispersed, it will be a different story.

This post has been edited by icemanfx: Jul 24 2020, 03:00 AM

There is NEVER an agreement in the first place.

What goes behind the scene of SnP is neither with your or my knowledge.

If the govt can accept it, the bank can approve the loan, who are we to say is illegal or otherwise ?

This post has been edited by mini orchard: Jul 24 2020, 06:08 AM

As though those without mark up no default ?

The need to mark up loan is why mark up loan has higher default risks.

This post has been edited by icemanfx: Jul 24 2020, 06:09 AM

In some countries, this is loan fraud, a felony.

You can NEVER proved marked-up in the first place if seller buyer agreed.

Conviction of a crime is based on evidence and not hear say. Nobody will write b&w for 'illegal' transactions.

This post has been edited by mini orchard: Jul 24 2020, 07:41 AM

So it is not considered a loan fraud in Malaysia?..haha sorry im in dillema right now...there are a lot of grey areas but when i go to all the banks, all bankers suggested markup price and even some bankers admit they markup even for their own property..but reading all the things in internet , i am not sure if the supplementary agreement for discounts were made , would it be fully legal.

What is fraud ? ...is when someone suffered a financial loss....in marked cases ...

Govt will collect higher stamp duty (mot) for marked up sale.

Govt will collect higher stamp duty for loan agreement

Govt will collect higher rpgt tax, if applicable.

Will govt charge the seller buyer for such transaction ? and

Banker will collect higher loan interest payment.





Default by borrower is lain cerita.

This post has been edited by mini orchard: Jul 24 2020, 07:02 AM

As long as loan is repaid on time is fine.

all i can say is everyone is giving their point of view and writing all the advises here carry no weight ... until someone get complain and start investigation from the Official party ...

that time la... ppl start to pusing the story .. it is pretty common here in k/