Mar 23 2018, 12:05 AM
QUOTE(Berfda @ Mar 22 2018, 11:11 PM)
The house named to the vendor only. Its not joined name. According to the vendor, when the time he purchased the house, the wife is full-time housewife and not contribute at all in monetary. they also not stay in this house when they still together. The house is empty until I come in.
They already divorced like 3 years ago(2014), they move on their life in separate way and the ex wife shows no interest to bother about the house. Then the vendor decide to sell the house and start to advertise from beginning of year 2017. She still not even bother about the ex husband decision to sell the house. Only after she find out the ex husband found a buyer on nov 2017, seems like she dont want to miss the train to grab some profit then quickly lodge the caveat.
Just with the reasons above, the husband can challenge the validity of the claim (in this case, the caveat) by the ex wife. His divorce lawyer should be very well versed in this. If the wife can prove that the house was acquired during their time together and that she has contributed to the purchase of the house only can she claim partial ownership. But having said that, unless the vendor has failed in his obligation to pay matrimony to the ex wife, then she could lay claim on the property.They already divorced like 3 years ago(2014), they move on their life in separate way and the ex wife shows no interest to bother about the house. Then the vendor decide to sell the house and start to advertise from beginning of year 2017. She still not even bother about the ex husband decision to sell the house. Only after she find out the ex husband found a buyer on nov 2017, seems like she dont want to miss the train to grab some profit then quickly lodge the caveat.
This post has been edited by TOMEI-R: Mar 23 2018, 12:06 AM
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