Hi all,

my dad is buying a property and is in the middle of signing the SPA. however, in the SPA, it stated that we pay 3% to the lawyer firm for RPGT and the rest of 6% to the seller. i wonder is this a normal practice? My dad is a very traditional people which has stubborn head. according to my dad, he should paying all 9% to the seller only as the RPGT doesn't concern to us.

so my question is,
1. does the 3% to lawyer firm and 6% to seller is normal practice?
2. or we can choose to pay all 9% to the seller? will there any sub-sequences?

Thanks all. In the end, I managed to persuade my dad that it is normal practice. Thanks for the help