Hi

This is related to a home loan but from a seller's point of view. Here's my dad's situation. Any advice appreciated.

- sold his fully paid up, freehold property this year for 1mil. The property is more than 10 years old, so no rpgt
- buyer and my dad/seller share the same lawyer recommended by the RE agent
- buyer paid 2% (20k) booking and 8% (80k) when signing the SPA
- buyer took a 700k loan and letter of undertaking from bank had been issued. We hv a copy of this provided by the lawyer.
- lawyer is asking my dad to hand over the original house geran to initiate the transfer process
- we are asking to get a written confirmation from the lawyer to show that the buyer has deposited the balance (200k) with them before my dad passes them the original house geran
- lawyer says that they can show us the transfer slip for the differential sum before we give them the geran

Question : is this normal procedure ? I.e. The last step ? Shouldn't the lawyer confirm that they hv received the entire differential sum (900k) before we hand over the house geran ?