Thanks for the lengthy reply

I'll try to deal with your concerns systematically so that hopefully not just you, but the readers here, would be able to see where I'm arguing from more clearly:
The blessings of Abraham and JobBoth verses that you've quoted only say this: Abraham was rich. Remember, no one is denying that God doesn't bless people or give anyone money. If it is God's will that you drive a BMW, then you will drive a BMW. If it is God's will that you drive a proton Saga, then he will give you a proton saga.
What I said about using these OT figures still applies: We cannot derive a theological principle simply by saying that "Job was rich, therefore we will be rich too". You argument MIGHT work against someone who argues that God *will not* bless *anyone* with *Anything*. Again I must reiterate the point that this is not my position, nor is it Sylar's position.
Let me make clear our position again: We are simply against the belief that Jesus' death on the cross means we will *not* be sick and poor. <<< This statement does *not* mean that we believe that God cannot bless any of his children.
My Argument is to address someone who don't believe that God can bring them out from lack. That has always been my position in terms of prosperity.
Because I find it hypocritical of Christians who fight against the believe that God blesses his children with more than enough but don't mind providing themselves the best home and give their children the best education that money can buy. While they don't believe God wants to bless us in all areas of our lives but they would be looking out for investment opportunities hoping for promotions in their careers or searching for better job prospect to earn more.
The Messiahnic prophecy of Isaiah 53The question here now is :"Did Christ die for my diseases?" You affirm this, I deny this. So let's dig into the text...
Firstly, this is where I have to bring back the hermeunetical principle of "context is king". Yes, the Hebrew word used *may* refer to physical healing, but it can also refer to a figurative healing. To determine what Isaiah meant when he used those words, we have to look at the context to determine what he meant. E.g. He uses it to figuratively to describe how Israel would be "healed" (remember, Isaiah was a prophet to the Israelites, he heard from God to warn the Israelites) if they "see with their eyes, hear with their ears and understand with their hearts (cf. Isaiah 6:10)
So what is the surrounding context?
The surrounding context seems to demonstrate that what Isaiah was getting at was the forgiveness of sins! To plug in "healed" to mean "physical healing" would be odd because then the rest of the text doesn't seem to fit that reading.
Also, something you should note is that "iaomai" can refer to both physical healing (your luke example for instance) OR figurative healing (Jn 12:40 etc.). So just because the greek *can* mean one thing, you would need contextual arguments to support your use of the word because the greek could mean something else.
In fact, someone from The Master's seminary who probably knows both the greek in the LXX and the hebrew better than the both of us has written a very solid argument against your position that Christ died so that we may attain physical healing:
http://www.tms.edu/tmsj/tmsj6e.pdf Take some time to read it.
Note how he argues from what the OT sees atonement as too. Remember, your position is that Christ died as an atonement not just for sins, but for physical healing. But the whole idea of atonement in the OT is explicitly about the propitiation of sin, and in Hebrews, the author describes how Jesus died as a propitiation for our sins and how Jesus "atoned" for our sins. This strong definition of atonement doesn't permit you to add "for our physical healing" as well.
Luke and JohnNow here's where another hermeunetical principle has to be introduced. When we're exegeting scripture, we have to look at the immediate context first, before looking at the context of the whole bible. To interpret the bible with the bible is correct practice, but to skip the immediate context first is not.
In Luke 10, we have a specific command from Jesus to the 72 disciples (it's explicitly clear that this verse is specifically for the 72). There could be better arguments against your position, but I suppose the immediate context of Luke 10 already casts doubt on your exegesis of the text. You already provided a defense that the command of Jesus in Luke 10 was for us as well, but you're using a different isolated verse that is in a different book of the Bible, so you cannot use that to defeat the immediate context of Luke 10.
But let's deal with your use of John 14. First, let's establish the context: John 14 seems to follow after the events of John 13. In John 13, we see Jesus talking about his betrayal (cf. John 13:21-30) and this seems to put the events during the last supper; The disciples were probably confused and scared as to what was going to happen.
Thus it seems fitting that in John 14 the first thing Jesus says is this :"Let not your hearts be troubled..." So here he comforts his disciples with spiritual truths and promises about how the "helper" will come, and we know that the Holy Spirit didn't come until Jesus has departed (day of pentecost).
Now bearing all of this in mind, here's what W. Hall Harris III, a professor of NT studies at Dallas Theological Seminary has to say about the verse:
Source
https://bible.org/seriespage/17-exegetical-...mentary-john-14 And note that *even* IF your interpretation is correct that Jesus is asking all of us to heal people just as he did, this does not mean that he died so that Christians may be healed. Remember what we're disagreeing on at this point: That Jesus died so that we maybe healed.
Nick Vujicic and etc.No, UW ):, I don't think I'm misunderstanding you here. Yes you claimed that we live in a fallen world, and I wholeheartedly agree. But the claim that you're making is that Jesus died not just for our sins, but so that we can be healed. Here's a breakdown of it
(1)Jesus died so that we may be physically healed and have protection in life <<< Your belief that I disagree with
(2)Jesus died for Nick Vujicic <<< we both accept this premise
(3)Nick Vujicic did not grow his limb back.
(4)Therefore, either (1) or (2) is false.
The logic here is pretty simple: Either (1) Jesus died so that we may be physically healed is false or (2) Jesus died for Nick Vujicic is false. You have to choose.
The reason why I'm re-emphasizing Christ's atoning work on the cross here is because you need to see the difference between what I believe the gospel to be and what you believe the gospel to be:
My belief: (a)Jesus Christ came to die on the cross for the sins of sinful men
Your belief: (b)Jesus Christ came to die on the cross for the sins of sinful men AND that they will be physically healed in this life.
Note how there is nothing about (i)Whether Christians can be blessed or healed by God if God desires them to be healed.
Man I'm starving. Time for din dins

Old Testament Interpretation must be interpreted in the light of the New Testament.
I'll just give you one verse to settle this once and for all, to prove that the notion is healing.
Matthew 8:16-17 - 16 When evening came, many who were demon-possessed were brought to him, and he drove out the spirits with a word and
. 17 This was to fulfill what was spoken through the prophet Isaiah: