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 RPGT for property disposed >1year, Can it be 0% if no profit made???

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Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 10:06 AM

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I may agree with you guys the government is stupid in many areas, but when it comes to taxation, you guys are naive to think the government is as stupid tongue.gif

Guys, please don't argue. The RPGT Act 1976 is the reference

Anti-avoidance provisions

Sec 25 (2)

The Director General, where he has reason to believe that
any transaction has the direct or indirect effect of—
(a) altering the incidence of tax which is payable or suffered
by or which would otherwise have been payable or suffered
by any person;

(b) relieving any person from any liability which has arisen
or which would otherwise have arisen to pay tax or to
make a return;

© evading or avoiding any duty or liability which is imposed
or would otherwise have been imposed on any person by
this Act; or

(d) hindering or preventing the operation of this Act in any
respect, may, without prejudice to such validity as it may have in any other
respect or for any other purpose, disregard or vary the transaction
and make such assessments as he considers just and proper in the
circumstances.

may, without prejudice to such validity as it may have in any other
respect or for any other purpose, disregard or vary the transaction
and make such assessments as he considers just and proper in the
circumstances



Although it is not commonly heard that LHDN go after property disposal which artificially suppress the selling price to reduce/escape RPGT, it doesn't mean you can do it. For those who believe they can out-smart the government, please go ahead to fool the government. Please remember to disclose your identity to me so that I can report you to LHDN. Upon successful recovery of tax avoidance, I will be given by LHDN 15% (or is it 30%) of tax recovered from you, legally tongue.gif

This post has been edited by Showtime747: Apr 5 2014, 10:07 AM
Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 10:44 AM

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QUOTE(bearbearwong @ Apr 5 2014, 10:31 AM)
that is what i have been saying and referring.. dude is referring s stamp duty model in RPGT calculations and sumore bombard me..
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So bearbear, have you read Sec 25(2) ? We still can simply put in RM300k as selling price and LHDN just have to accept ?
Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 10:45 AM

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QUOTE(gunh @ Apr 5 2014, 10:14 AM)
What make you say I cannot sell the house below market price and Tax dept will come after me? 

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Please refer Sec 25(2) of Real Property Gain Tax Act 1976
Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 11:13 AM

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QUOTE(gunh @ Apr 5 2014, 10:57 AM)
Have read it.  But which specific clauses say I cannot sell at below market value and will get penalise?
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You can ask the judge when LHDN takes you to court whether Sec 25(2) will be enough to make you pay the difference in RPGT. The provisions of Sec 25(2) is obvious enough for LHDN to catch people who under pay RPGT.

Don't get me wrong. You can always sell below market value and report RPGT based on S&P price. But if the difference between S&P price and market value is too big, LHDN can also go after you based on the Anti-Avoidance Provision. This provisions give them power to tax people trying to out-smart them. But if your price is around the market price, LHDN won't bother to tax you.




Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 11:44 AM

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QUOTE(gunh @ Apr 5 2014, 11:23 AM)
Bro,

I believe the RPGT sec 25(2) is not used or apply in our discussion.  Please read the Sec25 in Full.  This act is for those who think they are smart.  Eg:

The house belong to Husband (Disposer) name purchase 3years ago say at RM300,000.00

Now the house could be worth RM 500,000.00

Husband thought he is smart and transfer the house to his wife (connected person) at year No3 (which is now at market rate say 450,000 to 500,000) and then sell it another potential buyer. 

Husband think by doing that, he will have very minimal RPGT but with this RPGT act 25, stated clearly, that the RPGT act shall be from the  "Disposer" and not that "Connected Person"

Hope this clarifies.
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Bro,

Sec 25 Anti-avoidance provisions has 2 sections. The example you mention is about Sec 25(1) which is specific to a avoidance scheme. Section 25(2) is a "catch all" provision. Its effect is to allow LHDN to catch all "out-smart" avoidance scheme

If the provisions in Sec 25(2) refer to only Sec 25(1), then section 25(2) should be Sec 25(1)(a), 25(1)(b) and so on. Also, the wording in Sec 25(2) is obvious to be a stand alone section

That should clarifies tongue.gif
Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 11:50 AM

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QUOTE(gunh @ Apr 5 2014, 11:40 AM)
before reading paragraph 25(2), please read the full act 25

(3) In this section "transaction" means any trust, grant, covenant, agreement, arrangement or other disposition or transaction made or entered into (whether before or after the commencement of this Act), and includes a transaction entered into by two or more persons with another person or persons.
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Good that you bring up Sec 25(3) which mention "person". The definition of "person" is in Sec 2. It does not limit to connected person eg husband and wife in your example
Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 12:04 PM

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QUOTE(gunh @ Apr 5 2014, 11:51 AM)
Let say what you say is correct, 25(1) has not relation with 25(2), but in 25(2) which sentence specifically mentioned if we sell the asset below market value, LHDN will come after us?
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It didn't say so because it is a catch all section. But the effect of the wording is obvious enough

For example

Sec 25(2)(a) "altering the incidence of tax" - by understating disposal price intentionally, RPGT is lesser, hence it is "altering the incidence of tax"

Sec 25(2)© "evading and avoiding any duty and liability which is imposed" - by understating disposable price intentionally, RPGT is less, hence you are trying to avoid and evade tax


Bona fide selling at below market price most probably will not be queried by LHDN. If acquisition price is RM400k, market price is RM700k, you sell say RM600k, I think it is still acceptable because of property conditions, facing, renovation etc. But if market price is say RM700k, the S&P price is RM400k, then it should raise LHDN eyebrow. We can play around with the selling price to reduce some RPGT, but not overboard lah. Under Sec 25(2), they can go after elaborated scheme
Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 12:07 PM

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QUOTE(gunh @ Apr 5 2014, 11:53 AM)
That's why I still believe all the clause of 25(1), 25(2) and 25(3) have to be read together as there are co-related and not independent.
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I can't alter your belief. Not here to convince you. It is up to you to interprete. Next time if you have the chance to talk to your lawyer, do ask him/her this section
Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 01:17 PM

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QUOTE(gunh @ Apr 5 2014, 12:27 PM)
My understanding of Clause (25) has to be read in conjunction of sub clause 25(1), 25(2) and 25(3).

the explanation of this clause I understand from this article

Section 25 of the RPGT Act contains the general anti-avoidance provisions which allow the tax authorities to disregard transactions, vary transactions or impose taxes that should have been imposed.

The law specifies that this right is available if the transactions had the effect of “altering the incidence of tax”, “relieving a person from tax liability” or “evading or avoiding any liability which would otherwise have been imposed”.

Besides these general anti-tax avoidance measures which are also found in the Income Tax Act to discourage income tax avoidance, Section 25 of the RPGT Act also provides for persons who provide loans to related parties; for example, Mr A providing loans to Company A which is owned by him.

The law provides that if Company A sells a property and the property was financed by a loan provided by Mr A, the disposal may be regarded as a disposal by Mr A and not by Company A.

However, the cost of acquisition to Mr A is the market value of the property when Company A acquired the property from Mr A. If Company A had acquired the property from Mr A at the true market value, this anti-tax avoidance provision of the RPGT Act should not pose any problem.


Source : http://www.thestar.com.my/story.aspx/?file...ness%2f5027956&

Your explanation on 25(2)(a) and 25(2)© are based on your own understanding?  Based on the above article, your explanation seems is not correct.
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Bro,

The article actually reinforce my interpretation of Sec 25(2). I have highlighted the essence of anti-avoidance provision above. In what way do you think the article contradict my interpretation rclxub.gif


Showtime747
post Apr 5 2014, 04:20 PM

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QUOTE(gunh @ Apr 5 2014, 04:13 PM)
The article itself explained why there is clause25 and how it works.  Not based on what essence which u have highlighted.  Clause 25 have to be read in full and not interpreted part by part like what you have said. If u read again the clause and the article, you will find clause 25(1) ,25(2), and 25(3) are inter relate. 

i have explained and shared enough. if you still want to maintain your believing, then i cannot stop you. But i will not changed mine.
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Bro, inter related or not is not the question. That is technical. The question is we can't simply understate the disposal price for RPGT. LHDN can go after you if you have overdone.



 

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