I don't understand why bank ask for 20% or 50% settlement.

If it is proven and known not card holder fault, then bank should responsible for the fault for allowing the transaction go through, as stated by the BNM guideline and liabilities part.
If it is a card holder fault, (due to whatever reason, even the like it was actually CC holder swipe the card and doesn't admit it), then obvious bank would want full settlement.

20%, 50%?
50% bank fault?
50% CC holder fault?

Isn't the issue is like yes and no only.
50% yes?
50% no?

This post has been edited by cherroy: Dec 21 2010, 06:02 PM