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 Lawyers Corner, A one-stop centre on lawyers and queries

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soolee
post Jul 9 2011, 11:43 PM

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hi Dario,

Need your advice on lawyer and s&p.

I am selling an apartment (strata title still under developer name and the developer has wound up).

As for the sales, we will do double transfer. The buyer's solictor had prepared a draft of S&P with some conditions in the event of rejection of transfer. (which I dont agree with the terms and conditions)

However, after discussion with the purchaser, we have come to agreement that even though in the event of rejection of strata title transfer by land office, we still want the sales and purchase to be valid, and will continue to submit/apply for title transfer.

The buyer called his lawyer to ammend the S&P to what we have agreed, but the lawyer said this caused too much work on her side, and advised the buyer to sign the existing s&p.

Please advise, what can we do?

Will bar council give advise on this matter? Buyer does not want to appoint another lawyer, as he worries he has to pay this lawyer.

Many thanks,
sl




soolee
post Jul 10 2011, 01:16 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jul 10 2011, 01:05 AM)
What are the terms which you don't agree to?

1. in the s&p, there are few occurences of "other monies" to pay to purchaser in the event of rejection of transfer. I would prefer it to replace with quit rent or assessment rather "other monies" which is undefined, this could cause confusion and arguments later on.
2. in the event of rejection of transfer, I will have to refund the purchaser within 7 days, I requested to have 3 months so that I can reapply for loan.

QUOTE
You mean re-apply for transfer again? Well, normally if the application for transfer is rejected (for whatever reason), the SPA ought to lapse.
what do you suggest in our case, buyer still wants to buy even though the transfer is rejected. by the time of rejection, my loan will be already settled by buyer's financial institution.

QUOTE
Another thing to note is that the developer has gone into liquidation. And there's no individual title out yet? Or was it submitted for subdivision and then, the developer entered into liquidation?
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individual title is out. yes, developer entered into liquidation.

thanks for your help!

This post has been edited by soolee: Jul 10 2011, 01:21 AM
soolee
post Jul 10 2011, 02:05 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jul 10 2011, 01:43 AM)
If transfer is rejected, the losses of both parties ought to lie where it falls, i.e. each party bears their own losses. The purchaser can't claim anything from you. You would have to refund the deposit and the redemption sum to the purchaser/purchaser's financier, as the case may be. Perhaps that is what is meant by other monies.
How can replace with quit rent or assessment when that is your duty to pay for it? Perhaps what you can do is to ask the lawyer to define other monies.
yes, I understand that I will have to refund, but the statement say refund the deposit, or full amount of the premise, and other monies. I asked the lawyer to define "other monies", she said quit rent, assessment, and "other monies".

QUOTE
7 days or 10 working days is normal practice. The rule of thumb is that you're not supposed to spend the money until everything is 100% confirmed complete. 3 months is definitely not the norm and it is unlikely that the lawyer would advise his client to accept it.
yes, I understand I shouldnt spend the money, but I do not really have that amount of money, 70% of it goes to settle my financier. I only have about 30% of cash.

QUOTE
If transfer it rejected then the whole thing collapses. Yes of course the purchaser may re-apply again, but if it fails again, then what happens? The deposit, redemption sum (your financier will know how to calculate it and refund the purchaser's financier) and any other sum, like the differential sum would have to be refunded to the purchaser by you. There is no other way.
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the sequence is,
1. signing S&P
2. deposit
3. buyer's financier released money
4. settle the redemption sum I am owing to my financier
5. present 1st MOT & 2nd MOT
6. wait 2 weeks
7. released balance to me. (assuming no rejection)

it's unclear when will be the final date to know if the transfer been approved or rejected. do you have any idea that how long will we have to wait till?

is there any other way for this? if the transfer was rejected, buyer doesnt mind to reapply and reapply, even if it takes years. As for myself, I do not mind to cancel the transaction, as I had a buyer last year and we had the same issue and we didnt proceed, then I paid my solicitor to do the transfer, but unfortunately, when I called after a year (this year). my lawyer didnt do the transfer for me, they said I didnt ask them to, but I oredi paid.
Back to this s&p, i know this whole transaction sound unwise. I must admit that it's my mistake not to have the strata title perfected in the first place.

please advice.





soolee
post Jul 10 2011, 02:43 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jul 10 2011, 02:14 AM)
Is this the sequence in the SPA or from your understanding?

Normally no.5, present 1st MOT - will come at no.2. It has to be perfected in your favour first. Then the 3+1 period will start to run. Step no.3 will only come into the picture after 1st MOT has been perfected in your favour, and that the MOT has been executed between you and the purchaser. No Bank will release the redemption sum if their interest is not protected.
To be honest with you, this issue of 'transfer not being able to be registered' concern is really not something which happens very often. In fact, it very very rarely happens. If it is rejected due to a mistake in the MOT form, it can be rectified and presented once again. And the second time around, it ought to go through.
I asked the lawyer abt this, this is her reply in email:
"the 1st & 2nd MOT can only be presented simultaneously for registration at the Land Office after the redemption sum owing by you to Citibank has been fully settled and we have secured the Receipt & Reassignment executed by Citibank."

I would prefer to have present the 1st MOT first as you said, so I will not have problem to refund the purchaser. which one should come first?

QUOTE
If you had paid, how come it is not done? And how come you did not push them to do it? You ought to do so, if you had indeed paid them. Why not settle it fast to avoid any complications?
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yes, it was my mistake, I paid the lawyer last June, and didnt check again thinking it would take a year. when I called again this April, they said I didnt ask them to.

tq.
soolee
post Jul 10 2011, 02:24 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jul 10 2011, 12:24 PM)
[color=blue][size=7]Dear all,
I am shooting off for a much needed mini-holiday.
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Have a good holiday!
soolee
post Jul 13 2011, 01:17 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Jul 12 2011, 10:21 AM)
Check what is stated in their invoice/note of charges. See whether preparation of MOT is included or otherwise. If there is none, there's no point pursuing it with them anymore as cakap mulut has no basis.
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what do you mean?

I have paid my prev lawyer to do the title transfer last year, as they didnt do it, they sent all my document to this lawyer (buyer's lawyer) and the money I paid them to this lawyer to do the 1st MOT for me.

How is it possible that a SPA still valid even the transfer being rejected by land office?

TQ.
soolee
post Aug 13 2011, 07:55 PM

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hi dariofoo,

a question need your help here, and thanks to your earlier help. wink.gif

If the developer has wound up, and now to sell the property, vendor has lawyer for 1st MOT, buyer has another lawyer for 2nd MOT and S&P. When the time to submit 1st & 2nd MOT together to land office, which lawyer to submit? As vendor pay his own lawyer for 1st MOT, and buyer pay his own laywer for 2nd MOT and S&P, whose lawyer has to submit both MOT to land office? will there be an extra charge for submitting the MOT?

Thanks for your help!!




soolee
post Aug 13 2011, 10:02 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Aug 13 2011, 09:52 PM)
From the Purchaser's side. No additional legal fees is allowed to be charged for presentation of MOT. It's part of scaled fees.  icon_rolleyes.gif
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Thanks! But whose lawyer is going to submit the MOT? as 1st MOT and 2nd MOT need to be submitted concurrently?
In this case, (I am the vendor), can I have my lawyer to do the 1st MOT and pass it to buyer's lawyer to submit both MOTs? Can I NOT have a lawyer to act for me in the S&P, but only do 1st MOT for me?

Thank you very much for you help.

soolee
post Aug 18 2011, 01:25 AM

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Thank you very much for your help dariofoo!

Sorry that need your help to clarify further on this, dont really understand this,
QUOTE(dariofoo @ Aug 15 2011, 12:10 PM)
Cannot. Preparation of MOT is part of the scaled fees. As such, your SPA lawyer will be involved with the MOT. It cannot be separated.
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the S&P is prepared by buyer's lawyer, I do not appoint any lawyer to act for me in the SPA, I will only appoint a lawyer to prepare my 1st MOT. Is this ok?

Many thanks!

soolee
post Aug 19 2011, 01:57 AM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Aug 18 2011, 11:51 AM)
I see.

Yes that can be done.

In that case, why don't you go back to the law firm who did your SPA and appoint them to prepare the MOT on your behalf. The legal fees would only be 25% of the applicable scaled fees. If you go to another law firm it will be 50% of the scaled fees.

Good luck  icon_rolleyes.gif
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Thank you, appreciate very much for your kind advice. wink.gif, unfortunately, I had a small argument with the SPA lawyer and now she refused to do the 1st MOT, but also insisted that I appoint a lawyer to act for me in the SPA, cause she does not want to discuss with me over the SPA. ;D. I am OK with getting another lawyer for the 1st MOT, but I dont want to appoint any lawyer to act for me in the SPA, as I believe it's my choice whether to have any lawyer to act for me in the SPA, or not.

Thank again for your help!!! It's very kind of you, really. ;D

Have a good day dariofoo!


soolee
post Aug 19 2011, 06:58 PM

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QUOTE(dariofoo @ Aug 19 2011, 01:49 PM)
I would actually advise you to just appoint a lawyer to act for you in the SPA. Given the fact that you still need to appoint a lawyer and pay 50% legal fees for the MOT, you might as well top up a bit and make sure that your rights are protected in the SPA and throughout the whole transaction.

Of course you can look at it the other way around and say that you save 50%, but if you want the peace of mind, then 50% extra is really not much. That's my opinion.

icon_rolleyes.gif
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Thank you dariofoo!!! ;-)

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