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TSdariofoo
post Jul 29 2011, 01:28 PM

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QUOTE(aliluya @ Jul 28 2011, 03:39 PM)
Dear all sifuss, i wish to get some help and advise.
My brother bought a house about 7 years back.It's a condominium in klang. The unit is not ready yet until today, which is overdue for 4 years already. So wondering what should my brother do for his scenario?

thanks in advance for the advice.
*
First things first, go look for the developer and find out what's going on. See what the developer has to explain first. Well, assuming that the developer is still around and not yet wound up sweat.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 29 2011, 01:32 PM

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QUOTE(Superman7 @ Jul 28 2011, 08:18 PM)
MOT (Memorandum of Transfer) is payable to lawyer or to the land authority? Just would like to understand what MOT is about.
*
MOT is the document itself. What you pay is stamp duty upon the MOT. MOT is the document whereby the vendor agrees to transfer, and the purchaser agrees to accept the transfer of the property in question. Stamp duty is paid to LHDN, but is deposited with the lawyer as stakeholder first. The lawyer will then pay LHDN on the purchaser's behalf once LHDN has assessed the value of the property and fixed the stamp duty payable.

QUOTE(Superman7 @ Jul 28 2011, 08:18 PM)
Also, MOT for a property of 700k is 15k, correct? is this called stamp duty as well?
*
The stamp duty payable upon the MOT for a property transacted at RM700K is 15k (estimate). If LHDN assesses it to be of higher value, then the stamp duty would be upon the higher value, and not longer based on 700k.

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TSdariofoo
post Jul 29 2011, 02:00 PM

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QUOTE(ashgren @ Jul 29 2011, 12:27 AM)
I need an advice here.In 2009, i'm purchase a 2nd hand car. From the advertisement in one of famous motor magazines which stated "Accident Free" I go to visit the car dealer and he also claim that the car "accident free". starting from 2010, until July 2011 i'm not using the car because working oversea.

When come back, i have to sent the car for puspakom inspection for rodtax expired more than a year. Suddenly, puspakom found that the car got cut n join mark in rear side. I go back to the car dealer to check with them to confirm if it is cut n join car...they denied that and showing me the letter from JPJ which stated the approval to fix the whole rear car due to heavy accident on 2006.

I'm arguing with the car dealer bos why he never show me the document on the time I want to purchase it. He said, no need because Puspakom inspection on 2006 (changing part) and 2009 (Change owner) already said the car is qualified on the road after repair...However, I feel cheated because why they do not stated the actual condition on the car earlier some more they even cheat by said it is accident free. Now I've collect all relevant document need for further action such as the advertisement page, Puspakom latest inspection cert. The previous owner geran which stated the repair job made and new geran which not stated the repair job.

I already done some reasearh on act of law related. It SOGA act. The misinterpration when selling the goods. try to hide something the truth about the goods. Hope someone here can give an advice please..how should I do to take an action againts the used car dealer.
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Interesting.

Now, first things first, you can't sue based on an advertisement. An ad is just an 'invitation to treat' and is not an offer to you. The thing is, when you booked the car, was there any booking form or document where the dealer represented to you that the car was accident-free? Or was it just a verbal representation that the car is accident-free? If verbal, then it is your word against his word.

The Sale of Goods Act states that the dealer must sell to you a car which is in merchantable quality. If there has been a prior accident, etc, he must inform same to you. However, what is there to stop him from now saying that he already informed it to you, and that you nonetheless agreed to go ahead with the purchase? Once again, it is your word against his word on this matter.

Furthermore, the rule of caveat emptor also applies. This means, "Let the buyer beware". As such, the argument by the dealer is that you had inspected the car and was satisfied with its condition. He will also now turn around and say that he has shown you the old geran and the Puspakom report of 2006 and yet, you still proceeded to buy the car.

Again, your complaint against them is 2 years after you had purchased the car. So they can also argue that you had waived your rights to complaint and that you had acquiscieced to the condition of the car. That is another point against you.

Unless you have something in writing by them (besides the ad) where they represented to you that the car was accident-free - it looks like it is an uphill task for you to prove misrep against them.

Cases like yours is the exact reason why the Govt has implemented many amendments to the Hire Purchase Act - one of which it that it is the duty of the seller to send the car for a Puspakom check before the sale can be done.

You can opt to see a lawyer. Am advising you without the benefit of perusing documents so perhaps a lawyer can give you a more personalised and accurate advice.

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TSdariofoo
post Jul 29 2011, 02:07 PM

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rekaniaga:
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There's no tenancy by contract as the contract has lapsed. Once it has expired and it is not renewed by a supplementary agreement, it lapsed and is of no effect. You can't refer to its terms anymore. Your tenancy is a monthly tenancy, and it is renewed once a month everytime you pay the rent, and she accepts payment without protest. Such monthly tenancies are terminable with one month's notice by either party.

So she can't refer to the 3months notice period clause in the contract.

With regard to the RM200 penalty, how did she charge you? Did she inform you to pay extra for that month and you agreed, or is she now doing a contra with the deposit? I'm not clear on that.

You now need to claim back your deposit. She has no right to hold it back. You can either draft a letter to demand it from her, or you can see a lawyer to get a formal letter of demand sent out. Don't do things like holding back the keys, etc. That has nothing to do with the deposit. The act of you holding the keys is a sign of intent to carry on with the rental, and she can use it against you.

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TSdariofoo
post Jul 29 2011, 11:47 PM

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QUOTE(rekaniaga @ Jul 29 2011, 05:20 PM)
About the RM200 penalty, the situation is like this. Lets say, for June, I pay rent on the 10th june, suppose I need to pay it before 7 June. And then, she call me and ask me to pay more 200 as a penalty or she will include it on the next month bill. I just pay the penalty as she want.
*
You shouldn't have done that. That means you've agreed to a variation of the agreement to incorporate a clause imposing a penalty. A variation to the terms of the contract can be by way of conduct as well. How do you want to go around it? Do you want to term it as advance payment? hmm.gif How many months 'penalty' did you pay? Is it a substantial amount?


QUOTE(rekaniaga @ Jul 29 2011, 05:20 PM)
And about the tenancy deposit. Do yoou have any sample letter that I can write and show her? I already give her the key on June and she refuse to let me out with the deposit. She said she has right to sue me coz I did'nt send her any letter/notice.
*
You go back on the terms of the agreement. Don't be confused. Earlier I said that you can't refer back to the agreement. However, those terms are not applicable as it takes effect throughout the existence of the tenancy. The terms in relation to return of deposit only takes effect upon the expiration of the tenancy, so it is still applicable in these circumstances.

You just draft a simple letter referring to the clause and demand the deposit back. Keep it simple. If still no news then you need to see a lawyer to draft out a legal letter of demand (LOD). Alternatively, you can see a lawyer now itself to send out a LOD without the need for you to send one. You have a good case, don't worry. Surely the landlady will return the deposit to you by hook or by crook. She just needs a bit of 'persuasion'.

Good luck ya. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 30 2011, 12:01 AM

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QUOTE(strafez @ Jul 29 2011, 08:43 PM)
Hi Dario,

My situation is like this, I'm selling a property for 590k. The SPA fees a legal firm quoted me is about RM6.8k, I asked for best price he only deduct RM900 (have 3 owners, RM300 X 3) as for CKHT search they will bear themselves so the whole thing price came down to RM5.9k. Is it a good bargain or should I ask for further discount?
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We don't talk about discounts in this thread. As you know it is illegal. So, whatever discount is between you and your lawyer.

QUOTE(strafez @ Jul 29 2011, 08:43 PM)
I get to know that the Purchaser's lawyer will draft the SPA and my lawyer will wait for the draft so by then he will check it before we sign. I understands that this is a normal procedure, just felt like abit not worth the amount I'll need to pay for. Is the Purchaser paying for about the same?
*
Anyone who appoints a lawyer to act on his behalf pays full scaled fees. Disbursements will vary between you and purchaser. Of course purchaser pays more in total as stamp duty is involved. If you feel that you don't need to be represented, and that what you're paying is "not worth the amount", then get rid of the lawyer and appoint the purchaser's lawyer to do the redemption and file CKHT forms for you. Easy peasy. The choice is always up to you whether you want to appoint your own lawyer or not.

If you want to know the pros and cons of appointing your own lawyer vs tumpang purchaser's lawyer - go read the first few pages of this thread. There was a discussion to that effect. nod.gif

You want to read horror stories of unrepresented vendors who alleged that they got "taken for a ride" by ourchaser's lawyers?
There's so many in this thread, I've lost count. Read a few and perhaps then, you'd be enlightened. nod.gif

QUOTE(strafez @ Jul 29 2011, 08:43 PM)
And I've waited for 2 weeks in exact since the offer letter had been signed. From the Real Estate agent, he said the SPA and the remaining % for deposit should be done within 14days from the day we signed the offer letter. I know we shouldnt be too harsh just wondering what should we do if we wait for another few more days and still no news?
*
Sometimes it's 14 working days. Might want to check, It doesn't mean that it must be signed in 14 days. If the first draft is e-mailed by the purchaser's lawyer to your lawyer within the 14 days and parties start communicating back and forth, the 14 days period is deemed to be extended by virtue of the solicitors' conduct. It is a common understanding in that regard. If you feel that you need to push the lawyer to speed things up, go ahead. You're paying fees anyway. At the very least the lawyer ought to explain the delay.

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TSdariofoo
post Jul 30 2011, 12:11 AM

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QUOTE(wtm0325 @ Jul 29 2011, 10:33 PM)
Hi Dario,

I had paid the deposit 3% for a condo and later only found out the developer has gone bankruptcy. For title transfer, my lawyer and current owner lawyer have decided to deal straight with insolvency department. It's a freehold and I am the 2nd buyer. Loan has been approved one and a half month ago. No S&P signed yet, I was told it is due to lack of documentation.

Question(s):
1) can we proceed to S&P first before the title transfer?
2) any idea how long does it take to respond from insolvency department?
3) after insolvency department, will the process different and consume more time to proceed to S&P?
4) will there be any penalty/ interest charge from bank if we didn't execute the loan for too long?
5) any penalty for late S&P agreement since it is not my problem?

At the same time, I am having communication delay/error with the current owner. The agent told that current owner refuse to negotiate with me directly (might be the agent doesn't want to). The agent pass the message that, the owner allowed me to shift in before S&P agreement (with T&C in black & white), but when I request permission to direct deal with current owner, the agent replied: "current owner said anything pass to his lawyer."  sweat.gif  sweat.gif  sweat.gif  I do not expect anything now, I just want to speed up the process, seal the deal and shift my butt to the house.

Please advise.

Thanks a million in advance  notworthy.gif  notworthy.gif  notworthy.gif
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1) Sure
2) Not sure. Depends on how complete the file on the developer which they have with them. Some developers leave things in a mess, so it takes longer. Some developers keep good records, so the letter of confirmation from the Official Receiver can be issued faster. See your luck and how good your lawyer can follow up.

3) Sorry I don't understand the question.

4) Execute the letter of offer or the loan doc? I'm sure you haven't executed the letter of offer yet right? You haven't even signed the SPA.

5) I think from the way it is , there is a tacit understanding between the lawyers to sort out outstanding issues and queries with the Official Receiver before signing the SPA. As such, there ought to be no penalty at this moment. The penalty you're taking about only takes effect once time starts to run and the transaction extends beyond the 3 month period, and goes into the extended completion period (extra 1 month).

In your case, time would not start to run until the OR confirms things with your lawyer.

With regard to your issues with the vendor, you must note and respect the fact that the vendor is represented by an agent as well as a lawyer. You are represented by a lawyer as well. Instruct your lawyer accordingly and let both parties sort it out with each other professionally in writing. What the agent said is correct. Everything must be dealt with by the vendor's lawyer, who has been appointed and paid for by the vendor. If you call the vendor directly, you are bypassing not only his lawyer, but yours, and that can lead to unpleasant situations, i.e. miscommunication and further conflict arising therefrom.

Buying a property without title where a developer has already been wound up can be a long, draggy affair. Best you sit down with your lawyer and get a full explanation from A to Z with regard to procedure and what to expect. Do not expect thing to be easy and smooth. Patience shall truly be a virtue in your case.

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TSdariofoo
post Jul 30 2011, 11:30 AM

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QUOTE(strafez @ Jul 30 2011, 10:14 AM)
Opps, understand that  blush.gif
Yes, got to agree with that. Risk is definitely high without my own lawyer, just trying to squeeze more to benefit my part  sweat.gif
Yes sir, just wondering if I pushed my lawyer will he feel offended. Ok i'll just give him a call asking how's the process on monday then haha.

Thank you for your lovely advice bro. Really appreciate it!  thumbup.gif
*
Push and squeeze as much as you like as you're paying for it. smile.gif

QUOTE(strafez @ Jul 30 2011, 10:14 AM)
Thank you for your lovely advice bro. Really appreciate it!  thumbup.gif
*
Haha. You're welcome. If any more queries crop up do drop by. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Jul 30 2011, 05:32 PM

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QUOTE(wtm0325 @ Jul 30 2011, 01:01 PM)
4) I have signed the letter of offer from bank, so ada penalty kah?
*
Penalty if you cancel - there might be some processing fees which you have to pay. If you have doubts, call the banker and inform them not to appoint a solicitor to do your loan doc yet. Let your file sit at the bank first. Once they appoint a lawyer, the loan doc process will start and if you back out then, you would need to pay legal fees to the lawyer for work done.

So, keep updating your banker.


QUOTE(wtm0325 @ Jul 30 2011, 01:01 PM)
Thanks Dario. I was expecting it to be easy and smooth. Now my room rental until mid of august, have to sleep tepi jalan oledi doh.gif  doh.gif  doh.gif
*
You can sleep at the back of your Alza nod.gif

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TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2011, 09:13 AM

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QUOTE(mrdefinite @ Jul 31 2011, 07:47 AM)
I have recently purchased an apartment unit and put in 15% for the down payment. I received my copy of the stamped SPA yesterday but to my horror I realised the deposit is indicated to be only 10% in the SPA. I am rather worried now and wonder if something is wrong here?
*
Was all of the 15% went to the vendor immediately upon signing of the SPA? Or was it 10% to vendor and 5% retained by lawyer. Then if you're taking a 85% loan, things would make sense.

If you're taking a 85% loan, then the 15% could be like this (10% deposit + 5% differential sum)

If 15% was paid to the vendor, then, based on how many lawyers are involved in the transaction, there has to be acknowledgements made. If there's one for each party they can write to each other. If just one your lawyer needs to call in the vendor to sign a letter confirming the typo error and that he acknowledges that 15% was paid.

However, I would not advise that the SPA be amended to 15% deposit as this will be the sum to be forfeited by the vendor in the event that the SPA is not completed through your own default. The deposit is always stated as 10%. So, if the SPA is aborted by you, only 10% will be forfeited and the 5% has to be returned to you. Professionally, that extra 5% should not be released to the vendor now. It has to be retained by the lawyer as stakeholder until it can be released together with the balance loan sum.

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TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2011, 06:18 PM

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QUOTE(propriete @ Jul 31 2011, 10:30 AM)
In my case, I have 2 properties, sold 1st property last year.
2nd property, I'm staying, bought in 2006 for RM 270k, now strata title out and I need to execute MOT and doing refinancing at the same time at higher price RM 400K.

Questions:
Since I have only one property now, MOT is executed within allowed period, and original purchase price is lower than RM 350K, do I qualify?
*
I suppose you're asking whether you qualify for the 50% rebate off stamp duty right?

In your case, you do not qualify as the property was purchased in 2006.
TSdariofoo
post Jul 31 2011, 06:24 PM

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QUOTE(mrdefinite @ Jul 31 2011, 10:42 AM)
Thank you for the valuable info, Dario.

For your info the 15% was paid to the vendor's lawyer through my agent upon signing of SPA. I am taking 85% loan.

Is it a standard practice that the SPA indicates only 10% deposit and the rest is retained by the vendor's lawyer? I'm hoping it is because this is my first time purchasing a property and thus have very little experience in this.

I am rather worried and wish to be able to get in touch with my lawyer but today is a Sunday so...
*
Standard practice is 10%. I've never seen any other figure when it comes to deposit upon signing of SPA. 10% appears to be the customary sum which both parties always agree on.

If 15% was paid, then the vendor's solicitor would be wise to only remit 10% to the vendor and keep the 5% differential sum as stakeholder.

Differential sum :

Purchase price (less) deposit (less) loan sum = differential sum.

In your case the 5% can be deemed as differential sum. Look at the cover letter by the purchaser's solicitors when forwarding the cheque for the 15% to the vendor's solicitors. It should be cc to you as well.

QUOTE(mrdefinite @ Jul 31 2011, 10:42 AM)
If it was a typo error and requires the lawyer for each party to rectify the error in a letter (i.e, nothing to be amended on the SPA), will this delay the disbursement of money from the bank and also transfer of ownership? Right now they are in the process of getting consent from developer and stuff.
*
Nothing to worry and nothing to amend as you've stated that you're taking 85% loan. As such, surely the 5% is the differential sum forwarded to the vendor's solicitor as stakeholder. There is no error here. The deposit is still 10% as stated in the SPA.

So don't worry about it. Should be ok. Just confirm again with your lawyer tomorrow. Good luck.

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TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2011, 12:11 AM

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QUOTE(ycngjack1 @ Jul 31 2011, 08:55 PM)
Hi,

when do we pay the fees for snp?
once signed snp or after finish process or before even start sign? >.< can pay half then continue the rest payment o not?
*
Customary practice is full payment of fees same time as signing of SPA. If want to pay half upfront can nego with the lawyer. It's up to both parties to decide. But very rarely would the lawyer allow you to pay at the end after the whole process is finished. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2011, 11:10 AM

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QUOTE(propriete @ Aug 1 2011, 09:06 AM)
Regarding 50% stamp duty, I checked the link to stamp duty, there is no similar situation, question:

In my case, I have 2 properties, sold 1st property last year.
2nd property, I'm staying, bought in 2006 for RM 270k, now strata title out and I need to execute MOT and doing refinancing at the same time at higher price RM 400K.

Since I have only one property now, MOT is executed within allowed period, and ORIGINAL purchase price is lower than RM 350K, do I qualify?
*
Bro,

I have answered your question yesterday. But it's ok, I'll make it clearer for you.

Clause 5 which I had explained in that topic on Stamp Duty clearly states:

5.The Sale & Purchase Agreement is executed on/after 01.01.2011 but on/before 31.12.2012

LHDN does not look at date of MOT. It is date of SPA which matters.

So, you will not qualify for the rebate.

Sorry,mate. icon_rolleyes.gif


TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2011, 11:14 AM

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QUOTE(mrdefinite @ Aug 1 2011, 08:05 AM)
Thank you so much bro. Your explanation is really helpful. Your help is much appreciated!  icon_rolleyes.gif
*
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TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2011, 11:15 AM

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QUOTE(ycngjack1 @ Aug 1 2011, 11:08 AM)
Bank officer told me i can actually sign snp on bank branch, is tat true ah?
*
What do you mean by sign snp on bank branch? Sorry am not clear on that.
TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2011, 02:05 PM

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First page of this thread states:

Please do not PM me for any legal advice, nor ask for any recommendations for law firms. I do not give out any advice via PM. Please post your legal query at this thread so that everyone can benefit from an answer.

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TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2011, 02:46 PM

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QUOTE(lyt25_1234 @ Aug 1 2011, 02:15 PM)
Hi dariofoo,

I have a question regarding the redeemptions.
I am using purchaser's lawyer, so meaning I have not appointed my own lawyer to sell my house.

From the lawyer, they said my first redeemption cheque will arrive around 1 month to 2 months time after the bank have process the transfer of title or something similar (I am not sure here) and will issue me the first redeemption cheque. So my question is, what is this first redeemption cheque?
*
First redemption cheque would refer to the cheque to redeem (settle) your outstanding loan with your current bank. nod.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2011, 02:58 PM

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QUOTE(ycngjack1 @ Aug 1 2011, 02:45 PM)
Soli i mean the loa agreement and also snp can sign on bank place instead of lawyer firm
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Loan agreement and SPA and all documents ought to be signed before a lawyer at a law firm, and not at a bank.

Unless you feel that you just want to save time and don't feel the need to make a trip to see the lawyer to ask or pose any questions regarding the whole transaction, then go ahead and just sign it at the Bank. Otherwise, the proper way is to do it before a lawyer. icon_rolleyes.gif
TSdariofoo
post Aug 1 2011, 03:00 PM

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QUOTE(wtm0325 @ Aug 1 2011, 02:49 PM)
Alza is to put my daily kachang like toothbrush, toothpaste, bucket, clothes etc I sleep at road side then  tongue.gif  tongue.gif  tongue.gif

Thank you so much dario, you are very helpful  notworthy.gif  notworthy.gif  notworthy.gif
*
Haha. Cheers cheers.gif

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