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Philosophy Philosophical question of intangibility., And ultimately, inevitably to God.

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lycaphim
post May 31 2010, 09:28 PM

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QUOTE(Deadlocks @ May 30 2010, 02:40 PM)
Why is that you can accept the "existence" of "emotions of love", but not the "epiphany of God"? Are they both not intangible?
This seems to be the core assertion of your argument. I'll offer a few responses.

Firstly, I would definitely make a distinction between God and emotions - both have different ontologies.

God would be a being, invisible, yes, but a being with (some) attributes of a person. For example, he can communicate with other human beings.

An emotion would not be a being, but rather, a state. To be more exact, an emotion occurs when certain parts of the brain is bathed in a certain mix of neuro-chemicals (and of course, other stimuli), thereby generating anger, sadness and other emotions.

Emotions are "intangible" for the simple reason that they occur on a molecular level. Actually, emotions can be "seen" - the brains of people hooked to MRI machines show distinctly different patterns when in various emotional states.

God, on the other hand, is ostensibly undetectable by our five senses and modern instruments. Many people have claimed to see such a being and it is up for question whether they did actually experience "God". (Of course, discounting any and every account of experience with God for some a priori philosophical reason would be quite naive - each experience must be examined individually)

In other words, just because something is intangible doesn't mean it does not exist, but the opposite is true as well.

This post has been edited by lycaphim: May 31 2010, 09:30 PM

 

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