Mar 23 2010, 01:14 PM
QUOTE(duckaton @ Jan 13 2010, 12:29 AM)
Any reason why? 
Is it bcos the depreciation value higher.
or the assumption that default will be lower for national car buyer?
Only due to depreciation. See if a person defaults his payment then selling a Honda is easier for the bank than a Proton. So after one year also bank can sell the car for more than the outstanding. Is it bcos the depreciation value higher.
or the assumption that default will be lower for national car buyer?
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